
Department of Justice
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1Was ist passiert?
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Tat 1 von 1
„PC 30“
Fahrzeug für 30 Tage beschlagnahmt (Fahren ohne Fahrerlaubnis)
Stellt ein Polizist fest, dass jemand fährt, obwohl seine Fahrerlaubnis entzogen oder ausgesetzt ist, obwohl er entgegen einer Auflage ohne funktionierende Alkohol-Wegfahrsperre fährt, oder obwohl er nie einen Führerschein hatte, darf er den Fahrer festnehmen und das Fahrzeug sicherstellen — bei einem Unfall auch ohne Festnahme. Das Fahrzeug bleibt 30 Tage beschlagnahmt. Der Paragraph zählt auf, wann es früher herausgegeben werden muss, etwa wenn es gestohlen war oder der Fahrer seinen Führerschein wieder in Ordnung bringt. Strafbar macht sich der Sicherungseigentümer, der das Fahrzeug wissentlich vor Ablauf der 30 Tage an den Halter oder den Fahrer von damals zurückgibt.
Gefunden über „30“ steht im Katalog bei 30 Tage
Strafe$2.000 — kein Gefängnis im Text
Cal. Veh. Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Veh. Code § 14602.6 — Fahrzeug für 30 Tage beschlagnahmt (Fahren ohne Fahrerlaubnis)Wortlautzu
Stellt ein Polizist fest, dass jemand fährt, obwohl seine Fahrerlaubnis entzogen oder ausgesetzt ist, obwohl er entgegen einer Auflage ohne funktionierende Alkohol-Wegfahrsperre fährt, oder obwohl er nie einen Führerschein hatte, darf er den Fahrer festnehmen und das Fahrzeug sicherstellen — bei einem Unfall auch ohne Festnahme. Das Fahrzeug bleibt 30 Tage beschlagnahmt. Der Paragraph zählt auf, wann es früher herausgegeben werden muss, etwa wenn es gestohlen war oder der Fahrer seinen Führerschein wieder in Ordnung bringt. Strafbar macht sich der Sicherungseigentümer, der das Fahrzeug wissentlich vor Ablauf der 30 Tage an den Halter oder den Fahrer von damals zurückgibt.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Für die vorzeitige Herausgabe durch den Sicherungseigentümer: Vergehen mit Geldstrafe von 2.000 US-Dollar, zusätzlich zu allen anderen gesetzlichen Strafen. Die Beschlagnahme des Fahrzeugs für 30 Tage sowie die Kosten für Abschleppen und Standgeld trägt der Halter.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(4) Any legal owner who knowingly releases or causes the release of a vehicle to a registered owner or the person in possession of the vehicle at the time of the impoundment or any agent of the registered owner in violation of this subdivision shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and subject to a fine in the amount of two thousand dollars ($2,000) in addition to any other penalties established by law.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) Whenever a peace officer determines that a person was driving a vehicle while his or her driving privilege was suspended or revoked, driving a vehicle while his or her driving privilege is restricted pursuant to Section 13352 or 23575 and the vehicle is not equipped with a functioning, certified interlock device, or driving a vehicle without ever having been issued a driver’s license, the peace officer may either immediately arrest that person and cause the removal and seizure of that vehicle or, if the vehicle is involved in a traffic collision, cause the removal and seizure of the vehicle without the necessity of arresting the person in accordance with Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 22650) of Division 11. A vehicle so impounded shall be impounded for 30 days. (2) The impounding agency, within two working days of impoundment, shall send a notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the legal owner of the vehicle, at the address obtained from the department, informing the owner that the vehicle has been impounded. Failure to notify the legal owner within two working days shall prohibit the impounding agency from charging for more than 15 days’ impoundment when the legal owner redeems the impounded vehicle. The impounding agency shall maintain a published telephone number that provides information 24 hours a day regarding the impoundment of vehicles and the rights of a registered owner to request a hearing. The law enforcement agency shall be open to issue a release to the registered owner or legal owner, or the agent of either, whenever the agency is open to serve the public for nonemergency business. (b) The registered and legal owner of a vehicle that is removed and seized under subdivision (a) or their agents shall be provided the opportunity for a storage hearing to determine the validity of, or consider any mitigating circumstances attendant to, the storage, in accordance with Section 22852. (c) Any period in which a vehicle is subjected to storage under this section shall be included as part of the period of impoundment ordered by the court under subdivision (a) of Section 14602.5. (d) (1) An impounding agency shall release a vehicle to the registered owner or his or her agent prior to the end of 30 days’ impoundment under any of the following circumstances: (A) When the vehicle is a stolen vehicle. (B) When the vehicle is subject to bailment and is driven by an unlicensed employee of a business establishment, including a parking service or repair garage. (C) When the license of the driver was suspended or revoked for an offense other than those included in Article 2 (commencing with Section 13200) of Chapter 2 of Division 6 or Article 3 (commencing with Section 13350) of Chapter 2 of Division 6. (D) When the vehicle was seized under this section for an offense that does not authorize the seizure of the vehicle. (E) When the driver reinstates his or her driver’s license or acquires a driver’s license and proper insurance. (2) No vehicle shall be released pursuant to this subdivision without presentation of the registered owner’s or agent’s currently valid driver’s license to operate the vehicle and proof of current vehicle registration, or upon order of a court. (e) The registered owner or his or her agent is responsible for all towing and storage charges related to the impoundment, and any administrative charges authorized under Section 22850.5. (f) A vehicle removed and seized under subdivision (a) shall be released to the legal owner of the vehicle or the legal owner’s agent prior to the end of 30 days’ impoundment if all of the following conditions are met: (1) The legal owner is a motor vehicle dealer, bank, credit union, acceptance corporation, or other licensed financial institution legally operating in this state or is another person, not the registered owner, holding a security interest in the vehicle. (2) (A) The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent pays all towing and storage fees related to the seizure of the vehicle. No lien sale processing fees shall be charged to the legal owner who redeems the vehicle prior to the 15th day of impoundment. Neither the impounding authority nor any person having possession of the vehicle shall collect from the legal owner of the type specified in paragraph (1), or the legal owner’s agent any administrative charges imposed pursuant to Section 22850.5 unless the legal owner voluntarily requested a poststorage hearing. (B) A person operating or in charge of a storage facility where vehicles are stored pursuant to this section shall accept a valid bank credit card or cash for payment of towing, storage, and related fees by a legal or registered owner or the owner’s agent claiming the vehicle. A credit card shall be in the name of the person presenting the card. “Credit card” means “credit card” as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1747.02 of the Civil Code, except, for the purposes of this section, credit card does not include a credit card issued by a retail seller. (C) A person operating or in charge of a storage facility described in subparagraph (B) who violates subparagraph (B) shall be civilly liable to the owner of the vehicle or to the person who tendered the fees for four times the amount of the towing, storage, and related fees, but not to exceed five hundred dollars ($500). (D) A person operating or in charge of a storage facility described in subparagraph (B) shall have sufficient funds on the premises of the primary storage facility during normal business hours to accommodate, and make change in, a reasonable monetary transaction. (E) Credit charges for towing and storage services shall comply with Section 1748.1 of the Civil Code. Law enforcement agencies may include the costs of providing for payment by credit when making agreements with towing companies on rates. (3) The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent presents a copy of the assignment, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 7500.1 of the Business and Professions Code; a release from the one responsible governmental agency, only if required by the agency; a government-issued photographic identification card; and any one of the following, as determined by the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent: a certificate of repossession for the vehicle, a security agreement for the vehicle, or title, whether paper or electronic, showing proof of legal ownership for the vehicle. Any documents presented may be originals, photocopies, or facsimile copies, or may be transmitted electronically. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or any other governmental agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, shall not require any documents to be notarized. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies may require the agent of the legal owner to produce a photocopy or facsimile copy of its repossession agency license or registration issued pursuant to Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code, or to demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, that the agent is exempt from licensure pursuant to Section 7500.2 or 7500.3 of the Business and Professions Code. No administrative costs authorized under subdivision (a) of Section 22850.5 shall be charged to the legal owner of the type specified in paragraph (1), who redeems the vehicle unless the legal owner voluntarily requests a poststorage hearing. No city, county, city and county, or state agency shall require a legal owner or a legal owner’s agent to request a poststorage hearing as a requirement for release of the vehicle to the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or other governmental agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, shall not require any documents other than those specified in this paragraph. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or other governmental agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, shall not require any documents to be notarized. The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent shall be given a copy of any documents he or she is required to sign, except for a vehicle evidentiary hold logbook. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, or any person in possession of the vehicle, may photocopy and retain the copies of any documents presented by the legal owner or legal owner’s agent. (4) A failure by a storage facility to comply with any applicable conditions set forth in this subdivision shall not affect the right of the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent to retrieve the vehicle, provided all conditions required of the legal owner or legal owner’s agent under this subdivision are satisfied. (g) (1) A legal owner or the legal owner’s agent that obtains release of the vehicle pursuant to subdivision (f) shall not release the vehicle to the registered owner of the vehicle, or the person who was listed as the registered owner when the vehicle was impounded, or any agents of the registered owner, unless the registered owner is a rental car agency, until after the termination of the 30-day impoundment period. (2) The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent shall not relinquish the vehicle to the registered owner or the person who was listed as the registered owner when the vehicle was impounded until the registered owner or that owner’s agent presents his or her valid driver’s license or valid temporary driver’s license to the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent. The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent or the person in possession of the vehicle shall make every reasonable effort to ensure that the license presented is valid and possession of the vehicle will not be given to the driver who was involved in the original impoundment proceeding until the expiration of the impoundment period. (3) Prior to relinquishing the vehicle, the legal owner may require the registered owner to pay all towing and storage charges related to the impoundment and any administrative charges authorized under Section 22850.5 that were incurred by the legal owner in connection with obtaining custody of the vehicle. (4) Any legal owner who knowingly releases or causes the release of a vehicle to a registered owner or the person in possession of the vehicle at the time of the impoundment or any agent of the registered owner in violation of this subdivision shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and subject to a fine in the amount of two thousand dollars ($2,000) in addition to any other penalties established by law. (5) The legal owner, registered owner, or person in possession of the vehicle shall not change or attempt to change the name of the legal owner or the registered owner on the records of the department until the vehicle is released from the impoundment. (h) (1) A vehicle removed and seized under subdivision (a) shall be released to a rental car agency prior to the end of 30 days’ impoundment if the agency is either the legal owner or registered owner of the vehicle and the agency pays all towing and storage fees related to the seizure of the vehicle. (2) The owner of a rental vehicle that was seized under this section may continue to rent the vehicle upon recovery of the vehicle. However, the rental car agency may not rent another vehicle to the driver of the vehicle that was seized until 30 days after the date that the vehicle was seized. (3) The rental car agency may require the person to whom the vehicle was rented to pay all towing and storage charges related to the impoundment and any administrative charges authorized under Section 22850.5 that were incurred by the rental car agency in connection with obtaining custody of the vehicle. (i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the registered owner and not the legal owner shall remain responsible for any towing and storage charges related to the impoundment, any administrative charges authorized under Section 22850.5, and any parking fines, penalties, and administrative fees incurred by the registered owner. (j) (1) The law enforcement agency and the impounding agency, including any storage facility acting on behalf of the law enforcement agency or impounding agency, shall comply with this section and shall not be liable to the registered owner for the improper release of the vehicle to the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent provided the release complies with the provisions of this section. A law enforcement agency shall not refuse to issue a release to a legal owner or the agent of a legal owner on the grounds that it previously issued a release. (2) (A) The legal owner of collateral shall, by operation of law and without requiring further action, indemnify and hold harmless a law enforcement agency, city, county, city and county, the state, a tow yard, storage facility, or an impounding yard from a claim arising out of the release of the collateral to a licensed repossessor or licensed repossession agency, and from any damage to the collateral after its release, including reasonable attorney’s fees and costs associated with defending a claim, if the collateral was released in compliance with this section. (B) This subdivision shall apply only when collateral is released to a licensed repossessor, licensed repossession agency, or its officers or employees pursuant to Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code.
: license suspension · license revocation · license restriction · vehicle removal · vehicle impoundment · lien on vehicle
Fahrerlaubnis · Teil 6 · Geldstrafe $2.000
Stufe steht nicht im Gesetz
Meldepflicht wohnsitzloser Sexualstraftäter
Registrierte Sexualstraftäter ohne festen Wohnsitz müssen sich lebenslang melden und die Registrierung alle 30 Tage erneuern. Die Erstmeldung hat binnen fünf Werktagen nach Entlassung zu erfolgen; dabei sind die Orte anzugeben, an denen sich die Person üblicherweise aufhält. Wer wieder eine feste Wohnung bezieht, muss dies innerhalb weniger Tage melden.
Gefunden über „30“ steht im Katalog bei 30 Tage
Strafe1 Monate Gefängnis
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 290.011 — Meldepflicht wohnsitzloser SexualstraftäterWortlautzu
Registrierte Sexualstraftäter ohne festen Wohnsitz müssen sich lebenslang melden und die Registrierung alle 30 Tage erneuern. Die Erstmeldung hat binnen fünf Werktagen nach Entlassung zu erfolgen; dabei sind die Orte anzugeben, an denen sich die Person üblicherweise aufhält. Wer wieder eine feste Wohnung bezieht, muss dies innerhalb weniger Tage melden.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Wer die Erneuerung alle 30 Tage versäumt, wird nach PC 290.018(g) bestraft.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(e) Failure to comply with the requirement of reregistering every 30 days following initial registration pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be punished in accordance with subdivision (g) of Section 290.018. Failure to comply with any other requirement of this section shall be punished in accordance with either subdivision (a) or (b) of Section 290.018.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
Every person who is required to register pursuant to the act who is living as a transient shall be required to register for the rest of his or her life as follows: (a) He or she shall register, or reregister if the person has previously registered, within five working days from release from incarceration, placement or commitment, or release on probation, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 290, except that if the person previously registered as a transient less than 30 days from the date of his or her release from incarceration, he or she does not need to reregister as a transient until his or her next required 30-day update of registration. If a transient convicted in another jurisdiction enters the state, he or she shall register within five working days of coming into California with the chief of police of the city in which he or she is present or the sheriff of the county if he or she is present in an unincorporated area or city that has no police department. If a transient is not physically present in any one jurisdiction for five consecutive working days, he or she shall register in the jurisdiction in which he or she is physically present on the fifth working day following release, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 290. Beginning on or before the 30th day following initial registration upon release, a transient shall reregister no less than once every 30 days thereafter. A transient shall register with the chief of police of the city in which he or she is physically present within that 30-day period, or the sheriff of the county if he or she is physically present in an unincorporated area or city that has no police department, and additionally, with the chief of police of a campus of the University of California, the California State University, or community college if he or she is physically present upon the campus or in any of its facilities. A transient shall reregister no less than once every 30 days regardless of the length of time he or she has been physically present in the particular jurisdiction in which he or she reregisters. If a transient fails to reregister within any 30-day period, he or she may be prosecuted in any jurisdiction in which he or she is physically present. (b) A transient who moves to a residence shall have five working days within which to register at that address, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 290. A person registered at a residence address in accordance with that provision who becomes transient shall have five working days within which to reregister as a transient in accordance with subdivision (a). (c) Beginning on his or her first birthday following registration, a transient shall register annually, within five working days of his or her birthday, to update his or her registration with the entities described in subdivision (a). A transient shall register in whichever jurisdiction he or she is physically present on that date. At the 30-day updates and the annual update, a transient shall provide current information as required on the Department of Justice annual update form, including the information described in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, of subdivision (a) of Section 290.015, and the information specified in subdivision (d). (d) A transient shall, upon registration and reregistration, provide current information as required on the Department of Justice registration forms, and shall also list the places where he or she sleeps, eats, works, frequents, and engages in leisure activities. If a transient changes or adds to the places listed on the form during the 30-day period, he or she does not need to report the new place or places until the next required reregistration. (e) Failure to comply with the requirement of reregistering every 30 days following initial registration pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be punished in accordance with subdivision (g) of Section 290.018. Failure to comply with any other requirement of this section shall be punished in accordance with either subdivision (a) or (b) of Section 290.018. (f) A transient who moves out of state shall inform, in person, the chief of police in the city in which he or she is physically present, or the sheriff of the county if he or she is physically present in an unincorporated area or city that has no police department, within five working days, of his or her move out of state. The transient shall inform that registering agency of his or her planned destination, residence or transient location out of state, and any plans he or she has to return to California, if known. The law enforcement agency shall, within three days after receipt of this information, forward a copy of the change of location information to the Department of Justice. The department shall forward appropriate registration data to the law enforcement agency having local jurisdiction of the new place of residence or location. (g) For purposes of the act, “transient” means a person who has no residence. “Residence” means one or more addresses at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, houses, apartment buildings, motels, hotels, homeless shelters, and recreational and other vehicles. (h) The transient registrant’s duty to update his or her registration no less than every 30 days shall begin with his or her second transient update following the date this section became effective.
: Registrierungspflicht
Straftaten gegen die Person mit sexuellem Übergriff sowie Straftaten gegen die öffentliche Sittlichkeit · Teil 1
Beschlagnahme des Fluchtfahrzeugs nach Verfolgungsjagd
Legt ein Polizeibeamter einem Richter eine eidesstattliche Versicherung vor, dass ein bestimmtes Fahrzeug in seinem Beisein bei einer Flucht vor der Polizei (§§ 2800.1, 2800.2, 2800.3), bei rücksichtsloser Fahrweise (§ 23103) oder bei einem Straßenrennen (§ 23109 Absatz a oder c) benutzt wurde, muss der Richter die sofortige Sicherstellung anordnen. Das Fahrzeug darf höchstens 30 Tage einbehalten werden. Vorher zurückgegeben wird es, wenn es gestohlen war, wenn ein Angestellter eines Betriebes ohne Fahrerlaubnis es gefahren hat oder wenn der Halter die Polizei davon überzeugt, dass nicht er am Steuer saß. Halter und Eigentümer haben Anspruch auf eine Anhörung binnen zwei Gerichtstagen.
Gefunden über „30“ steht im Katalog bei 30 Tage
Strafe$2.000 — kein Gefängnis im Text
Cal. Veh. Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Veh. Code § 14602.7 — Beschlagnahme des Fluchtfahrzeugs nach VerfolgungsjagdWortlautzu
Legt ein Polizeibeamter einem Richter eine eidesstattliche Versicherung vor, dass ein bestimmtes Fahrzeug in seinem Beisein bei einer Flucht vor der Polizei (§§ 2800.1, 2800.2, 2800.3), bei rücksichtsloser Fahrweise (§ 23103) oder bei einem Straßenrennen (§ 23109 Absatz a oder c) benutzt wurde, muss der Richter die sofortige Sicherstellung anordnen. Das Fahrzeug darf höchstens 30 Tage einbehalten werden. Vorher zurückgegeben wird es, wenn es gestohlen war, wenn ein Angestellter eines Betriebes ohne Fahrerlaubnis es gefahren hat oder wenn der Halter die Polizei davon überzeugt, dass nicht er am Steuer saß. Halter und Eigentümer haben Anspruch auf eine Anhörung binnen zwei Gerichtstagen.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Vergehen (misdemeanor) mit Geldstrafe von 2.000 US-Dollar für den Eigentümer im Rechtssinne, der das Fahrzeug wissentlich an den Halter, an den Besitzer zum Zeitpunkt der Sicherstellung oder an deren Beauftragte herausgibt — zusätzlich zu allen sonstigen gesetzlichen Strafen. Für den Fahrer selbst ordnet der Paragraph keine Strafe an, sondern nur die Sicherstellung des Fahrzeugs für bis zu 30 Tage.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(4) Any legal owner who knowingly releases or causes the release of a vehicle to a registered owner or the person in possession of the vehicle at the time of the impoundment or any agent of the registered owner in violation of this subdivision shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and subject to a fine in the amount of two thousand dollars ($2,000) in addition to any other penalties established by law.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) A magistrate presented with the affidavit of a peace officer establishing reasonable cause to believe that a vehicle, described by vehicle type and license number or vehicle identification number, was an instrumentality used in the peace officer’s presence in violation of Section 2800.1, 2800.2, 2800.3, 23103, or subdivision (a) or (c) of Section 23109, shall issue a warrant or court order authorizing any peace officer to immediately seize and cause the removal of the vehicle. The warrant or court order may be entered into a computerized database. The vehicle may be impounded for a period not to exceed 30 days. (2) The impounding agency, within two working days of impoundment, excluding weekends and holidays, shall send a notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, or electronic service as provided for under Section 690.5 of the Penal Code, to the legal owner of the vehicle, at the address obtained from the department, informing the owner that the vehicle has been impounded and providing the owner with a copy of the warrant or court order. Failure to notify the legal owner within two working days shall prohibit the impounding agency from charging for more than 15 days impoundment when a legal owner redeems the impounded vehicle. The law enforcement agency shall be open to issue a release to the registered owner or legal owner, or the agent of either, whenever the agency is open to serve the public for regular, nonemergency business. (b) (1) An impounding agency shall release a vehicle to the registered owner or their agent before the end of the impoundment period and without the permission of the magistrate authorizing the vehicle’s seizure under any of the following circumstances: (A) When the vehicle is a stolen vehicle. (B) When the vehicle is subject to bailment and is driven by an unlicensed employee of the business establishment, including a parking service or repair garage. (C) When the registered owner of the vehicle causes a peace officer to reasonably believe, based on the totality of the circumstances, that the registered owner was not the driver who violated Section 2800.1, 2800.2, or 2800.3, the agency shall immediately release the vehicle to the registered owner or their agent. (2) A vehicle shall not be released pursuant to this subdivision, except upon presentation of the registered owner’s or agent’s currently valid driver’s license to operate the vehicle and proof of current vehicle registration, or upon order of the court. (c) (1) Whenever a vehicle is impounded under this section, the magistrate ordering the storage shall provide the vehicle’s registered and legal owners of record, or their agents, with the opportunity for a poststorage hearing to determine the validity of the storage. (2) A notice of the storage hearing shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, or by electronic service pursuant to Section 690.5 of the Penal Code, to the registered and legal owner of the vehicle within 48 hours of impoundment, excluding weekends and holidays, by the person or agency executing the warrant or court order, and shall include all of the following information: (A) The name, address, and telephone number of the agency providing the notice. (B) The location of the place of storage and a description of the vehicle, which shall include, if available, the name or make, the manufacturer, the license plate number, and the mileage of the vehicle. (C) A copy of the warrant or court order and the peace officer’s affidavit, as described in subdivision (a). (D) A statement that, in order to receive their poststorage hearing, the owners, or their agents, are required to request the hearing from the magistrate issuing the warrant or court order within 10 days of the date of the notice, and serve notice of the hearing on the person or agency who executed the warrant or court order. (3) The poststorage hearing shall be conducted within two court days after receipt of the request for the hearing. (4) At the hearing, the magistrate may order the vehicle released if they find any of the circumstances described in subdivision (b) or (e) that allow release of a vehicle by the impounding agency. The magistrate may also consider releasing the vehicle when the continued impoundment will cause undue hardship to persons dependent upon the vehicle for employment or to a person with a community property interest in the vehicle. (5) Failure of either the registered or legal owner, or their agent, to request, or to attend, a scheduled hearing satisfies the poststorage hearing requirement. (6) The agency employing the peace officer who caused the magistrate to issue the warrant or court order shall be responsible for the costs incurred for towing and storage if it is determined in the poststorage hearing that reasonable cause for the impoundment and storage are not established. (d) The registered owner or their agent is responsible for all towing and storage charges related to the impoundment, and any administrative charges authorized under Section 22850.5. (e) A vehicle removed and seized under subdivision (a) shall be released to the legal owner of the vehicle or the legal owner’s agent before the end of the impoundment period and without the permission of the magistrate authorizing the seizure of the vehicle if all of the following conditions are met: (1) The legal owner is a motor vehicle dealer, bank, credit union, acceptance corporation, or other licensed financial institution legally operating in this state or is another person, not the registered owner, holding a financial interest in the vehicle. (2) (A) The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent pays all towing and storage fees related to the seizure of the vehicle. A lien sale processing fees shall not be charged to the legal owner who redeems the vehicle before the 15th day of impoundment. Neither the impounding authority nor any person having possession of the vehicle shall collect from the legal owner of the type specified in paragraph (1), or the legal owner’s agent any administrative charges imposed pursuant to Section 22850.5 unless the legal owner voluntarily requested a poststorage hearing. (B) A person operating or in charge of a storage facility where vehicles are stored pursuant to this section shall accept a valid bank credit card or cash for payment of towing, storage, and related fees by a legal or registered owner or the owner’s agent claiming the vehicle. A credit card shall be in the name of the person presenting the card. “Credit card” means “credit card” as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1747.02 of the Civil Code, except, for the purposes of this section, credit card does not include a credit card issued by a retail seller. (C) A person operating or in charge of a storage facility described in subparagraph (B) who violates subparagraph (B) shall be civilly liable to the owner of the vehicle or to the person who tendered the fees for four times the amount of the towing, storage and related fees, but not to exceed five hundred dollars ($500). (D) A person operating or in charge of a storage facility described in subparagraph (B) shall have sufficient funds on the premises of the primary storage facility during normal business hours to accommodate, and make change in, a reasonable monetary transaction. (E) Credit charges for towing and storage services shall comply with Section 1748.1 of the Civil Code. Law enforcement agencies may include the costs of providing for payment by credit when making agreements with towing companies on rates. (3) (A) The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent presents, to the law enforcement agency, impounding agency, person in possession of the vehicle, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, a copy of the assignment, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 7500.1 of the Business and Professions Code; a release from the one responsible governmental agency, only if required by the agency; a government-issued photographic identification card; and any one of the following, as determined by the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent: a certificate of repossession for the vehicle, a security agreement for the vehicle, or title, whether paper or electronic, showing proof of legal ownership for the vehicle. Any documents presented may be originals, photocopies, or facsimile copies, or may be transmitted electronically. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or any other governmental agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, shall not require any documents to be notarized. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, may require the agent of the legal owner to produce a photocopy or facsimile copy of its repossession agency license or registration issued pursuant to Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code, or to demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies that the agent is exempt from licensure pursuant to Section 7500.2 or 7500.3 of the Business and Professions Code. (B) Administrative costs authorized under subdivision (a) of Section 22850.5 shall not be charged to the legal owner of the type specified in paragraph (1), who redeems the vehicle unless the legal owner voluntarily requests a poststorage hearing. A city, county, city and county, or state agency shall not require a legal owner or a legal owner’s agent to request a poststorage hearing as a requirement for release of the vehicle to the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or other governmental agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, shall not require any documents other than those specified in this paragraph. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or other governmental agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, shall not require any documents to be notarized. The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent shall be given a copy of any documents they are required to sign, except for a vehicle evidentiary hold logbook. The law enforcement agency, impounding agency, or any person acting on behalf of those agencies, or any person in possession of the vehicle, may photocopy and retain the copies of any documents presented by the legal owner or legal owner’s agent. (4) A failure by a storage facility to comply with any applicable conditions set forth in this subdivision shall not affect the right of the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent to retrieve the vehicle, provided all conditions required of the legal owner or legal owner’s agent under this subdivision are satisfied. (f) (1) A legal owner or the legal owner’s agent that obtains release of the vehicle pursuant to subdivision (e) shall not release the vehicle to the registered owner or the person who was listed as the registered owner when the vehicle was impounded of the vehicle or any agents of the registered owner, unless a registered owner is a rental car agency, until the termination of the impoundment period. (2) The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent shall not relinquish the vehicle to the registered owner or the person who was listed as the registered owner when the vehicle was impounded until the registered owner or that owner’s agent presents their valid driver’s license or valid temporary driver’s license to the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent. The legal owner or the legal owner’s agent shall make every reasonable effort to ensure that the license presented is valid and possession of the vehicle will not be given to the driver who was involved in the original impoundment proceeding until the expiration of the impoundment period. (3) Before relinquishing the vehicle, the legal owner may require the registered owner to pay all towing and storage charges related to the impoundment and the administrative charges authorized under Section 22850.5 that were incurred by the legal owner in connection with obtaining the custody of the vehicle. (4) Any legal owner who knowingly releases or causes the release of a vehicle to a registered owner or the person in possession of the vehicle at the time of the impoundment or any agent of the registered owner in violation of this subdivision shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and subject to a fine in the amount of two thousand dollars ($2,000) in addition to any other penalties established by law. (5) The legal owner, registered owner, or person in possession of the vehicle shall not change or attempt to change the name of the legal owner or the registered owner on the records of the department until the vehicle is released from the impoundment. (g) (1) A vehicle impounded and seized under subdivision (a) shall be released to a rental car agency before the end of the impoundment period if the agency is either the legal owner or registered owner of the vehicle and the agency pays all towing and storage fees related to the seizure of the vehicle. (2) The owner of a rental vehicle that was seized under this section may continue to rent the vehicle upon recovery of the vehicle. However, the rental car agency shall not rent another vehicle to the driver who used the vehicle that was seized to evade a police officer until 30 days after the date that the vehicle was seized. (3) The rental car agency may require the person to whom the vehicle was rented and who evaded the peace officer to pay all towing and storage charges related to the impoundment and any administrative charges authorized under Section 22850.5 that were incurred by the rental car agency in connection with obtaining custody of the vehicle. (h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the registered owner and not the legal owner shall remain responsible for any towing and storage charges related to the impoundment and the administrative charges authorized under Section 22850.5 and any parking fines, penalties, and administrative fees incurred by the registered owner. (i) (1) This section does not apply to vehicles abated under the Abandoned Vehicle Abatement Program pursuant to Sections 22660 to 22668, inclusive, and Section 22710, or to vehicles impounded for investigation pursuant to Section 22655, or to vehicles removed from private property pursuant to Section 22658. (2) This section does not apply to abandoned vehicles removed pursuant to Section 22669 that are determined by the public agency to have an estimated value of three hundred dollars ($300) or less. (j) The law enforcement agency and the impounding agency, including any storage facility acting on behalf of the law enforcement agency or impounding agency, shall comply with this section and shall not be liable to the registered owner for the improper release of the vehicle to the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent provided the release complies with the provisions of this section. The legal owner shall indemnify and hold harmless a storage facility from any claims arising out of the release of the vehicle to the legal owner or the legal owner’s agent and from any damage to the vehicle after its release, including the reasonable costs associated with defending any such claims. A law enforcement agency shall not refuse to issue a release to a legal owner or the agent of a legal owner on the grounds that it previously issued a release.
: vehicle removal · vehicle impoundment · lien on vehicle
Fahrerlaubnis · Teil 6 · Geldstrafe $2.000
Treffer zu den einzelnen Wörtern · 189
nur im Gesetzestext
Benachrichtigung der Opfer bei Haftentlassung von Stalkern
Behörden müssen Opfer, deren Angehörige und Zeugen auf Antrag mindestens 15 Tage vor der Entlassung einer wegen Nachstellung oder häuslicher Gewalt verurteilten Person aus dem Gefängnis benachrichtigen. Das gilt auch bei Änderungen des Bewährungsstatus, bei einem Wechsel des Aufenthaltsorts unter Bewährungsaufsicht und beim Untertauchen. Die Benachrichtigten müssen ihre Kontaktdaten aktuell halten.
Strafekeine Strafangabe im Gesetz
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 646.92 — Benachrichtigung der Opfer bei Haftentlassung von StalkernWortlautzu
Behörden müssen Opfer, deren Angehörige und Zeugen auf Antrag mindestens 15 Tage vor der Entlassung einer wegen Nachstellung oder häuslicher Gewalt verurteilten Person aus dem Gefängnis benachrichtigen. Das gilt auch bei Änderungen des Bewährungsstatus, bei einem Wechsel des Aufenthaltsorts unter Bewährungsaufsicht und beim Untertauchen. Die Benachrichtigten müssen ihre Kontaktdaten aktuell halten.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, county sheriff, or director of the local department of corrections shall give notice not less than 15 days prior to the release from the state prison or a county jail of any person who is convicted of violating Section 646.9 or convicted of a felony offense involving domestic violence, as defined in Section 6211 of the Family Code, or any change in the parole status or relevant change in the parole location of the convicted person, or if the convicted person absconds from supervision while on parole, to any person the court identifies as a victim of the offense, a family member of the victim, or a witness to the offense by telephone, electronic mail, or certified mail at his or her last known address, upon request and using the method of communication selected by the requesting party, if that method is available. A victim, family member, or witness shall keep the department or county sheriff informed of his or her current contact information to be entitled to receive notice. A victim may designate another person for the purpose of receiving notification. The department, county sheriff, or director of the local department of corrections, shall make reasonable attempts to locate a person who has requested notification but whose contact information is incorrect or not current. However, the duty to keep the department or county sheriff informed of current contact information shall remain with the victim. (2) Following notification by the department pursuant to Section 3058.61, in the event the victim had not originally requested notification under this section, the sheriff or the chief of police, as appropriate, shall make an attempt to advise the victim or, if the victim is a minor, the parent or guardian of the victim, of the victim’s right to notification under this section. (b) All information relating to any person who receives notice under this section shall remain confidential and shall not be made available to the person convicted of violating this section. (c) For purposes of this section, “release” includes a release from the state prison or a county jail because time has been served, a release from the state prison or a county jail to parole or probation supervision, or an escape from an institution or reentry facility. (d) The department or county sheriff shall give notice of an escape from an institution or reentry facility of any person convicted of violating Section 646.9 or convicted of a felony offense involving domestic violence, as defined in Section 6211 of the Family Code, to the notice recipients described in subdivision (a). (e) Substantial compliance satisfies the notification requirements of subdivision (a).
: Bewährung
Sonstige Straftaten · Teil 1
nur im Gesetzestext
Ordnungswidriges Verhalten in der Öffentlichkeit
Der Paragraf fasst mehrere Formen des ordnungswidrigen Verhaltens zusammen. Dazu zählen unzüchtige Handlungen in der Öffentlichkeit, Prostitution und deren Anbahnung, aggressives Betteln, Herumlungern an öffentlichen Toiletten zu unzüchtigen Zwecken, unbefugtes Nächtigen auf fremdem Grund, öffentliche Trunkenheit oder Berauschtsein, sofern man sich oder andere gefährdet, sowie Herumtreiben auf fremdem Privatgrund. Erfasst sind außerdem das heimliche Beobachten und Filmen in Umkleiden, Toiletten oder unter der Kleidung (Spannen) sowie die Verbreitung intimer Aufnahmen ohne Einwilligung (sogenannte Rachepornos).
Strafe2 Tage bis 1 Jahr Gefängnis· dazu $1.000 – $10.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 647 — Ordnungswidriges Verhalten in der ÖffentlichkeitWortlautzu
Der Paragraf fasst mehrere Formen des ordnungswidrigen Verhaltens zusammen. Dazu zählen unzüchtige Handlungen in der Öffentlichkeit, Prostitution und deren Anbahnung, aggressives Betteln, Herumlungern an öffentlichen Toiletten zu unzüchtigen Zwecken, unbefugtes Nächtigen auf fremdem Grund, öffentliche Trunkenheit oder Berauschtsein, sofern man sich oder andere gefährdet, sowie Herumtreiben auf fremdem Privatgrund. Erfasst sind außerdem das heimliche Beobachten und Filmen in Umkleiden, Toiletten oder unter der Kleidung (Spannen) sowie die Verbreitung intimer Aufnahmen ohne Einwilligung (sogenannte Rachepornos).
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Grundsätzlich Vergehen (misdemeanor). Ein zweiter oder weiterer Verstoß gegen Buchstabe j (Spannen, intime Aufnahmen): Freiheitsstrafe im Bezirksgefängnis bis zu einem Jahr oder Geldstrafe bis zu 2.000 US-Dollar oder beides; ebenso, wenn das Opfer minderjährig war. Ein zweiter oder weiterer Verstoß gegen Buchstabe j Nummer 3 bei minderjährigem Opfer: Geldstrafe bis zu 2.000 US-Dollar oder Freiheitsstrafe im Bezirksgefängnis bis zu einem Jahr oder Freiheitsstrafe nach § 1170 Buchstabe h oder Geld- und Freiheitsstrafe zusammen. Bei Anbahnung von Prostitution mit Minderjährigen durch Erwachsene sieht Buchstabe l erhöhte Strafen bis hin zur Verbrechensstrafe nach § 1170 Buchstabe h sowie eine zusätzliche Geldstrafe von 1.000 US-Dollar vor.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
punishable as a felony
(k) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a second or subsequent violation of subdivision (j) is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), if the victim of a violation of subdivision (j) was a minor at the time of the offense, the violation is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(3) If the victim of a violation of paragraph (3) of subdivision (j) was a minor at the time of the offense, a second or subsequent violation of paragraph (3) of subdivision (j) is punishable by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by imprisonment in county jail not exceeding one year, or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170, or by both a fine and imprisonment. This paragraph shall not apply to a person who was under 18 years of age at the time that they committed the offense.
(l) (1) (A) If a crime is committed in violation of subdivision (b) by a defendant who is 18 years of age or older, the person who was solicited was a minor at the time of the offense, and the defendant knew or should have known that the person who was solicited was a minor at the time of the offense, the violation is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for not less than two days and not more than one year, or by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, except as provided in paragraph (2).
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a defendant 18 years of age or older may be punished by either imprisonment in a county jail for not less than two days and not more than one year, or by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, or imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for any of the following:
(5) An individual who provides compensation, money, or anything of value in violation of paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (b) shall, in addition to any other punishment, be punished by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000). Fines collected pursuant to this paragraph shall be deposited in the Survivors Support
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
Except as provided in paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) and in subdivisions (k) and (l), a person who commits any of the following acts is guilty of disorderly conduct, a misdemeanor: (a) An individual who solicits anyone to engage in or who engages in lewd or dissolute conduct in a public place or in a place open to the public or exposed to public view. (b) (1) An individual who solicits, or who agrees to engage in, or who engages in, an act of prostitution with the intent to receive compensation, money, or anything of value from another person. An individual agrees to engage in an act of prostitution when, with specific intent to so engage, the individual manifests an acceptance of an offer or solicitation by another person to so engage, regardless of whether the offer or solicitation was made by a person who also possessed the specific intent to engage in an act of prostitution. (2) An individual who solicits, or who agrees to engage in, or who engages in, an act of prostitution with another person who is 18 years of age or older in exchange for the individual providing compensation, money, or anything of value to the other person. An individual agrees to engage in an act of prostitution when, with specific intent to so engage, the individual manifests an acceptance of an offer or solicitation by another person who is 18 years of age or older to so engage, regardless of whether the offer or solicitation was made by a person who also possessed the specific intent to engage in an act of prostitution. (3) An individual who solicits, or who agrees to engage in, or who engages in, an act of prostitution with another person who is a minor in exchange for the individual providing compensation, money, or anything of value to the minor. An individual agrees to engage in an act of prostitution when, with specific intent to so engage, the individual manifests an acceptance of an offer or solicitation by someone who is a minor to so engage, regardless of whether the offer or solicitation was made by a minor who also possessed the specific intent to engage in an act of prostitution. (4) A manifestation of acceptance of an offer or solicitation to engage in an act of prostitution does not constitute a violation of this subdivision unless some act, in addition to the manifestation of acceptance, is done within this state in furtherance of the commission of the act of prostitution by the person manifesting an acceptance of an offer or solicitation to engage in that act. As used in this subdivision, “prostitution” includes any lewd act between persons for money or other consideration. (5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, this subdivision does not apply to a child under 18 years of age who is alleged to have engaged in conduct to receive money or other consideration that would, if committed by an adult, violate this subdivision. A commercially exploited child under this paragraph may be adjudged a dependent child of the court pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 300 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and may be taken into temporary custody pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 305 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, if the conditions allowing temporary custody without warrant are met. (c) Who accosts other persons in a public place or in a place open to the public for the purpose of begging or soliciting alms. (d) Who loiters in or about a toilet open to the public for the purpose of engaging in or soliciting a lewd or lascivious or an unlawful act. (e) Who lodges in a building, structure, vehicle, or place, whether public or private, without the permission of the owner or person entitled to the possession or in control of it. (f) Who is found in a public place under the influence of intoxicating liquor, a drug, controlled substance, toluene, or a combination of an intoxicating liquor, drug, controlled substance, or toluene, in a condition that they are unable to exercise care for their own safety or the safety of others, or by reason of being under the influence of intoxicating liquor, drug, controlled substance, toluene, or a combination of an intoxicating liquor, drug, or toluene, interferes with or obstructs or prevents the free use of a street, sidewalk, or other public way. (g) If a person has violated subdivision (f), a peace officer, if reasonably able to do so, shall place the person, or cause the person to be placed, in civil protective custody. The person shall be taken to a facility, designated pursuant to Section 5170 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, for the 72-hour treatment and evaluation of inebriates. A peace officer may place a person in civil protective custody with that kind and degree of force authorized to effect an arrest for a misdemeanor without a warrant. A person who has been placed in civil protective custody shall not thereafter be subject to criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding based on the facts giving rise to this placement. This subdivision does not apply to the following persons: (1) A person who is under the influence of a drug or under the combined influence of intoxicating liquor and a drug. (2) A person who a peace officer has probable cause to believe has committed a felony, or who has committed a misdemeanor in addition to subdivision (f). (3) A person who a peace officer in good faith believes will attempt escape or will be unreasonably difficult for medical personnel to control. (h) Who loiters, prowls, or wanders upon the private property of another, at any time, without visible or lawful business with the owner or occupant. As used in this subdivision, “loiter” means to delay or linger without a lawful purpose for being on the property and for the purpose of committing a crime as opportunity may be discovered. (i) Who, while loitering, prowling, or wandering upon the private property of another, at any time, peeks in the door or window of an inhabited building or structure, without visible or lawful business with the owner or occupant. (j) (1) A person who looks through a hole or opening, into, or otherwise views, by means of any instrumentality, including, but not limited to, a periscope, telescope, binoculars, camera, motion picture camera, camcorder, mobile phone, electronic device, or unmanned aircraft system, the interior of a bedroom, bathroom, changing room, fitting room, dressing room, or tanning booth, or the interior of any other area in which the occupant has a reasonable expectation of privacy, with the intent to invade the privacy of a person or persons inside. This subdivision does not apply to those areas of a private business used to count currency or other negotiable instruments. (2) A person who uses a concealed camcorder, motion picture camera, or photographic camera of any type, to secretly videotape, film, photograph, or record by electronic means, another identifiable person under or through the clothing being worn by that other person, for the purpose of viewing the body of, or the undergarments worn by, that other person, without the consent or knowledge of that other person, with the intent to arouse, appeal to, or gratify the lust, passions, or sexual desires of that person and invade the privacy of that other person, under circumstances in which the other person has a reasonable expectation of privacy. For the purposes of this paragraph, “identifiable” means capable of identification, or capable of being recognized, meaning that someone, including the victim, could identify or recognize the victim. It does not require the victim’s identity to actually be established. (3) (A) A person who uses a concealed camcorder, motion picture camera, or photographic camera of any type, to secretly videotape, film, photograph, or record by electronic means, another identifiable person who may be in a state of full or partial undress, for the purpose of viewing the body of, or the undergarments worn by, that other person, without the consent or knowledge of that other person, in the interior of a bedroom, bathroom, changing room, fitting room, dressing room, or tanning booth, or the interior of any other area in which that other person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, with the intent to invade the privacy of that other person. For the purposes of this paragraph, “identifiable” means capable of identification, or capable of being recognized, meaning that someone, including the victim, could identify or recognize the victim. It does not require the victim’s identity to actually be established. (B) Neither of the following is a defense to the crime specified in this paragraph: (i) The defendant was a cohabitant, landlord, tenant, cotenant, employer, employee, or business partner or associate of the victim, or an agent of any of these. (ii) The victim was not in a state of full or partial undress. (4) (A) (i) A person who intentionally distributes or causes to be distributed the image of the intimate body part or parts of another identifiable person, or an image of the person depicted engaged in an act of sexual intercourse, sodomy, oral copulation, sexual penetration, or an image of masturbation by the person depicted or in which the person depicted participates, when subclauses (I) to (III), inclusive, are all true: (I) The person distributing the image knows or should know that the distribution of the image will cause serious emotional distress. (II) The person depicted suffers serious emotional distress. (III) One of the following has occurred: (ia) The person depicted in the image and the person distributing the image had agreed or had an understanding that the image shall remain private. (ib) The image was knowingly recorded, captured, or otherwise obtained by the person distributing the image without the authorization of the person depicted, and the image was recorded or captured under circumstances in which the person depicted had a reasonable expectation of privacy. (ic) The image is knowingly obtained by the person distributing the image by exceeding authorized access from the property, accounts, messages, files, or resources of the person depicted. (ii) A person who intentionally creates and distributes or causes to be distributed any photo realistic image, digital image, electronic image, computer image, computer-generated image, or other pictorial representation of an intimate body part or parts of another identifiable person, or an image of the person depicted engaged in an act of sexual intercourse, sodomy, oral copulation, sexual penetration, or an image of masturbation by the person depicted or in which the person depicted participates that was created in a manner that would cause a reasonable person to believe the image is an authentic image of the person depicted, under circumstances in which the person distributing the image knows or should know that distribution of the image will cause serious emotional distress, and the person depicted suffers that distress. This clause shall not apply to a person who was under 18 years of age at the time the person committed the offense. (B) (i) A person intentionally distributes an image described in subparagraph (A) when that person personally distributes the image. (ii) A person intentionally causes an image described in subparagraph (A) to be distributed when that person arranges, specifically requests, or intentionally causes another person to distribute the image. (C) As used in this paragraph, the following terms have the following meanings: (i) “Distribute” includes exhibiting in public or giving possession. (ii) “Identifiable” has the same meaning as in paragraphs (2) and (3). (iii) “Intimate body part” means any portion of the genitals, the anus and, in the case of a female, also includes any portion of the breasts below the top of the areola, that is either uncovered or clearly visible through clothing. (D) It shall not be a violation of this paragraph to distribute an image described in subparagraph (A) if any of the following applies: (i) The distribution is made in the course of reporting an unlawful activity. (ii) The distribution is made in compliance with a subpoena or other court order for use in a legal proceeding. (iii) The distribution is made in the course of a lawful public proceeding. (iv) The distribution is related to a matter of public concern or public interest. Distribution is not a matter of public concern or public interest solely because the depicted individual is a public figure. (5) This subdivision does not preclude punishment under any section of law providing for greater punishment. (6) A defendant shall not be punished for both a violation of paragraph (4) of subdivision (j) and paragraph (2) of subdivision (j) or Section 502 if that punishment would be barred under Section 654. (k) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a second or subsequent violation of subdivision (j) is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), if the victim of a violation of subdivision (j) was a minor at the time of the offense, the violation is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (3) If the victim of a violation of paragraph (3) of subdivision (j) was a minor at the time of the offense, a second or subsequent violation of paragraph (3) of subdivision (j) is punishable by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by imprisonment in county jail not exceeding one year, or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170, or by both a fine and imprisonment. This paragraph shall not apply to a person who was under 18 years of age at the time that they committed the offense. (l) (1) (A) If a crime is committed in violation of subdivision (b) by a defendant who is 18 years of age or older, the person who was solicited was a minor at the time of the offense, and the defendant knew or should have known that the person who was solicited was a minor at the time of the offense, the violation is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for not less than two days and not more than one year, or by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, except as provided in paragraph (2). (B) The court may, in unusual cases, when the interests of justice are best served, reduce or eliminate the mandatory two days of imprisonment in a county jail required by this paragraph. If the court reduces or eliminates the mandatory two days of imprisonment, the court shall specify the reason on the record. (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a defendant 18 years of age or older may be punished by either imprisonment in a county jail for not less than two days and not more than one year, or by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, or imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for any of the following: (A) The solicited minor was under 16 years of age at the time of the offense, or the person solicited was under 18 years of age at the time of the offense and the person solicited was caused, induced, or persuaded at the time of the solicitation to engage in a commercial sex act as specified in subdivision (c) of Section 236.1. (B) The solicited minor was more than 3 years younger than the defendant at the time of the offense. (3) A second or subsequent violation of paragraph (2) is punishable as a felony by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170. (4) A defendant who is convicted of a violation of paragraph (2) shall be ordered by the court, if granted probation, to successfully complete an education program on human trafficking and the exploitation of children. A fee shall not be imposed for participation or enrollment in an education program pursuant to this paragraph. (5) An individual who provides compensation, money, or anything of value in violation of paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (b) shall, in addition to any other punishment, be punished by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000). Fines collected pursuant to this paragraph shall be deposited in the Survivors Support Fund.
: Bewährung
Sonstige Straftaten · Teil 1 · Geldstrafe $1.000 – $10.000
nur im Gesetzestext
Herumlungern an Schulen und Kinderorten
Wer sich an einer Schule oder einem öffentlichen Ort herumtreibt, an dem Kinder verkehren, und dort trotz Aufforderung durch die Schulleitung, den Schulsicherheitsdienst oder die Polizei bleibt oder innerhalb von 72 Stunden zurückkehrt, gilt als Landstreicher und macht sich strafbar. Für Personen, die als Sexualstraftäter registriert sind, gilt ein schärferer Strafrahmen.
Strafe10 Tage bis 1 Jahr Gefängnis· dazu bis $2.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 653b — Herumlungern an Schulen und KinderortenWortlautzu
Wer sich an einer Schule oder einem öffentlichen Ort herumtreibt, an dem Kinder verkehren, und dort trotz Aufforderung durch die Schulleitung, den Schulsicherheitsdienst oder die Polizei bleibt oder innerhalb von 72 Stunden zurückkehrt, gilt als Landstreicher und macht sich strafbar. Für Personen, die als Sexualstraftäter registriert sind, gilt ein schärferer Strafrahmen.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Grundfall: Geldstrafe bis zu 1.000 US-Dollar oder Freiheitsstrafe im Bezirksgefängnis bis zu sechs Monaten oder beides. Für registrierte Sexualstraftäter bei der ersten Verurteilung: Geldstrafe bis zu 2.000 US-Dollar oder Freiheitsstrafe im Bezirksgefängnis bis zu sechs Monaten oder beides; nach einer früheren Verurteilung: Freiheitsstrafe im Bezirksgefängnis von mindestens 10 Tagen bis zu sechs Monaten, gegebenenfalls zusammen mit einer Geldstrafe bis zu 2.000 US-Dollar.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(a) Except as provided in subdivision (b) or (c), every person who loiters about any school or public place at or near which children attend or normally congregate and who remains at any school or public place at or near which children attend or normally congregate, or who reenters or comes upon a school or place within 72 hours, after being asked to leave by the chief administrative official of that school or, in the absence of the chief administrative official, the person acting as the chief administrative official, or by a member of the security patrol of the school district who has been given authorization, in writing, by the chief administrative official of that school to act as his or her agent in performing this duty, or a city police officer, or sheriff or deputy sheriff, or Department of the California Highway Patrol peace officer is a vagrant, and is punishable by a fine of not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000) or by imprisonment in a county jail for a period not exceeding six months, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(1) Upon a first conviction, by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than six months, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(2) If the defendant has been previously convicted once of a violation of this section or former Section 653g, by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not less than 10 days or more than six months, or by both imprisonment and a fine of not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), and shall not be released on probation, parole, or any other basis until he or she has served at least 10 days.
(3) If the defendant has been previously convicted two or more times of a violation of this section or former Section 653g, by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not less than 90 days or more than six months, or by both imprisonment and a fine of not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), and shall not be released on probation, parole, or any other basis until he or she has served at least 90 days.
(1) Upon first conviction, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(2) Upon a second conviction, by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment. The court shall consider a period of imprisonment of at least 10 days.
(3) If the defendant has been previously convicted two or more times, by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment. The court shall consider a period of imprisonment of at least 90 days.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) Except as provided in subdivision (b) or (c), every person who loiters about any school or public place at or near which children attend or normally congregate and who remains at any school or public place at or near which children attend or normally congregate, or who reenters or comes upon a school or place within 72 hours, after being asked to leave by the chief administrative official of that school or, in the absence of the chief administrative official, the person acting as the chief administrative official, or by a member of the security patrol of the school district who has been given authorization, in writing, by the chief administrative official of that school to act as his or her agent in performing this duty, or a city police officer, or sheriff or deputy sheriff, or Department of the California Highway Patrol peace officer is a vagrant, and is punishable by a fine of not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000) or by imprisonment in a county jail for a period not exceeding six months, or by both that fine and imprisonment. (b) Every person required to register as a sex offender who violates subdivision (a) shall be punished as follows: (1) Upon a first conviction, by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than six months, or by both that fine and imprisonment. (2) If the defendant has been previously convicted once of a violation of this section or former Section 653g, by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not less than 10 days or more than six months, or by both imprisonment and a fine of not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), and shall not be released on probation, parole, or any other basis until he or she has served at least 10 days. (3) If the defendant has been previously convicted two or more times of a violation of this section or former Section 653g, by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not less than 90 days or more than six months, or by both imprisonment and a fine of not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), and shall not be released on probation, parole, or any other basis until he or she has served at least 90 days. (c) Any person required to register with the chief of police or sheriff pursuant to Section 186.30 who violates subdivision (a) shall be punished as follows: (1) Upon first conviction, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment. (2) Upon a second conviction, by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment. The court shall consider a period of imprisonment of at least 10 days. (3) If the defendant has been previously convicted two or more times, by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment. The court shall consider a period of imprisonment of at least 90 days. (d) As used in this section, “loiter” means to delay, to linger, or to idle about a school or public place without lawful business for being present. (e) Nothing in this section shall preclude or prohibit prosecution under any other provision of law.
: Registrierungspflicht · Bewährung
Sonstige Straftaten · Teil 1 · Geldstrafe bis $2.000
nur im Gesetzestext
Strafschärfung bei Vorstrafen (Three Strikes)
Wer wegen eines schweren Verbrechens verurteilt wird und schon früher wegen eines schweren Verbrechens verurteilt wurde, erhält für jede solche Vorverurteilung eine zusätzliche Strafe. Bei einer einschlägigen Vorverurteilung wegen eines schweren oder Gewaltverbrechens verdoppelt sich die Strafe für die neue Tat. Bei zwei oder mehr solchen Vorverurteilungen droht eine zeitlich unbestimmte lebenslange Freiheitsstrafe. Diese Vorschrift ist als Three-Strikes-Regel bekannt.
Zuschlag, keine eigene Tat. Der Wert kommt voll auf die Strafe einer anderen Tat obendrauf — die Tat gehört also mit in den Fall, sonst gibt es nichts, worauf er kommt.
Zuschlag5 bis 25 Jahre Gefängnis
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 667 — Strafschärfung bei Vorstrafen (Three Strikes)Wortlautzu
Wer wegen eines schweren Verbrechens verurteilt wird und schon früher wegen eines schweren Verbrechens verurteilt wurde, erhält für jede solche Vorverurteilung eine zusätzliche Strafe. Bei einer einschlägigen Vorverurteilung wegen eines schweren oder Gewaltverbrechens verdoppelt sich die Strafe für die neue Tat. Bei zwei oder mehr solchen Vorverurteilungen droht eine zeitlich unbestimmte lebenslange Freiheitsstrafe. Diese Vorschrift ist als Three-Strikes-Regel bekannt.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Für jede frühere Verurteilung wegen eines schweren Verbrechens zusätzlich fünf Jahre, jeweils anschliessend zu verbüssen. Bei einer einschlägigen Vorverurteilung: doppelte Strafe für die neue Tat. Bei zwei oder mehr einschlägigen Vorverurteilungen: unbestimmte lebenslange Freiheitsstrafe mit einer Mindestverbüssungsdauer, die sich nach dem Höchsten von dreifacher Strafe, 25 Jahren Staatsgefängnis oder der nach Section 1170 bestimmten Strafe richtet.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(a) (1) A person convicted of a serious felony who previously has been convicted of a serious felony in this state or of any offense committed in another jurisdiction that includes all of the elements of any serious felony, shall receive, in addition to the sentence imposed by the court for the present offense, a five-year enhancement for each such prior conviction on charges brought and tried separately. The terms of the present offense and each enhancement shall run consecutively.
(ii) Imprisonment in the state prison for 25 years.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) A person convicted of a serious felony who previously has been convicted of a serious felony in this state or of any offense committed in another jurisdiction that includes all of the elements of any serious felony, shall receive, in addition to the sentence imposed by the court for the present offense, a five-year enhancement for each such prior conviction on charges brought and tried separately. The terms of the present offense and each enhancement shall run consecutively. (2) This subdivision shall not be applied when the punishment imposed under other provisions of law would result in a longer term of imprisonment. There is no requirement of prior incarceration or commitment for this subdivision to apply. (3) The Legislature may increase the length of the enhancement of sentence provided in this subdivision by a statute passed by majority vote of each house thereof. (4) As used in this subdivision, “serious felony” means a serious felony listed in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7. (5) This subdivision does not apply to a person convicted of selling, furnishing, administering, or giving, or offering to sell, furnish, administer, or give to a minor any methamphetamine-related drug or any precursors of methamphetamine unless the prior conviction was for a serious felony described in subparagraph (24) of subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7. (b) It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, to ensure longer prison sentences and greater punishment for those who commit a felony and have been previously convicted of one or more serious or violent felony offenses. (c) Notwithstanding any other law, if a defendant has been convicted of a felony and it has been pled and proved that the defendant has one or more prior serious or violent felony convictions as defined in subdivision (d), the court shall adhere to each of the following: (1) There shall not be an aggregate term limitation for purposes of consecutive sentencing for any subsequent felony conviction. (2) Probation for the current offense shall not be granted, nor shall execution or imposition of the sentence be suspended for any prior offense. (3) The length of time between the prior serious or violent felony conviction and the current felony conviction shall not affect the imposition of sentence. (4) There shall not be a commitment to any other facility other than the state prison. Diversion shall not be granted, nor shall the defendant be eligible for commitment to the California Rehabilitation Center as provided in Article 2 (commencing with Section 3050) of Chapter 1 of Division 3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (5) The total amount of credits awarded pursuant to Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 2930) of Chapter 7 of Title 1 of Part 3 shall not exceed one-fifth of the total term of imprisonment imposed and shall not accrue until the defendant is physically placed in the state prison. (6) If there is a current conviction for more than one felony count not committed on the same occasion, and not arising from the same set of operative facts, the court shall sentence the defendant consecutively on each count pursuant to subdivision (e). (7) If there is a current conviction for more than one serious or violent felony as described in paragraph (6), the court shall impose the sentence for each conviction consecutive to the sentence for any other conviction for which the defendant may be consecutively sentenced in the manner prescribed by law. (8) A sentence imposed pursuant to subdivision (e) shall be imposed consecutive to any other sentence that the defendant is already serving, unless otherwise provided by law. (d) Notwithstanding any other law and for the purposes of subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, a prior conviction of a serious or violent felony shall be defined as: (1) An offense defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 as a violent felony or an offense defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 as a serious felony in this state. The determination of whether a prior conviction is a prior felony conviction for purposes of subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, shall be made upon the date of that prior conviction and is not affected by the sentence imposed unless the sentence automatically, upon the initial sentencing, converts the felony to a misdemeanor. The following dispositions shall not affect the determination that a prior conviction is a prior felony for purposes of subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive: (A) The suspension of imposition of judgment or sentence. (B) The stay of execution of sentence. (C) The commitment to the State Department of State Hospitals as a mentally disordered sex offender following a conviction of a felony. (D) The commitment to the California Rehabilitation Center or any other facility whose function is rehabilitative diversion from the state prison. (2) A prior conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense that, if committed in California, is punishable by imprisonment in the state prison constitutes a prior conviction of a particular serious or violent felony if the prior conviction in the other jurisdiction is for an offense that includes all of the elements of a particular violent felony as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 or serious felony as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7. (3) A prior juvenile adjudication constitutes a prior serious or violent felony conviction for purposes of sentence enhancement if it meets all of the following: (A) The juvenile was 16 years of age or older at the time the juvenile committed the prior offense. (B) The prior offense is listed in subdivision (b) of Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or described in paragraph (1) or (2) as a serious or violent felony. (C) The juvenile was found to be a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law. (D) The juvenile was adjudged a ward of the juvenile court within the meaning of Section 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code because the person committed an offense listed in subdivision (b) of Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (e) For purposes of subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, and in addition to any other enhancement or punishment provisions that apply, the following apply if a defendant has one or more prior serious or violent felony convictions: (1) If a defendant has one prior serious or violent felony conviction as defined in subdivision (d) that has been pled and proved, the determinate term or minimum term for an indeterminate term shall be twice the term otherwise provided as punishment for the current felony conviction. (2) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (C), if a defendant has two or more prior serious or violent felony convictions as defined in subdivision (d) that have been pled and proved, the term for the current felony conviction shall be an indeterminate term of life imprisonment with a minimum term of the indeterminate sentence calculated as the greatest of: (i) Three times the term otherwise provided as punishment for each current felony conviction subsequent to the two or more prior serious or violent felony convictions. (ii) Imprisonment in the state prison for 25 years. (iii) The term determined by the court pursuant to Section 1170 for the underlying conviction, including any enhancement applicable under Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 1170) of Title 7 of Part 2, or any period prescribed by Section 190 or 3046. (B) The indeterminate term described in subparagraph (A) shall be served consecutive to any other term of imprisonment for which a consecutive term may be imposed by law. Any other term imposed subsequent to an indeterminate term described in subparagraph (A) shall not be merged therein but shall commence at the time the person would otherwise have been released from prison. (C) If a defendant has two or more prior serious or violent felony convictions as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 or subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 that have been pled and proved, and the current offense is not a serious or violent felony as defined in subdivision (d), the defendant shall be sentenced pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) unless the prosecution pleads and proves any of the following: (i) The current offense is a controlled substance charge, in which an allegation under Section 11370.4 or 11379.8 of the Health and Safety Code was admitted or found true. (ii) The current offense is a felony sex offense, defined in subdivision (d) of Section 261.5 or former Section 262, or a felony offense that results in mandatory registration as a sex offender pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290 except for violations of Sections 266 and 285, paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) and subdivision (e) of Section 286, paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) and subdivision (e) of Section 288a, Section 311.11, and Section 314. (iii) During the commission of the current offense, the defendant used a firearm, was armed with a firearm or deadly weapon, or intended to cause great bodily injury to another person. (iv) The defendant suffered a prior serious or violent felony conviction, as defined in subdivision (d) of this section, for any of the following felonies: (I) A “sexually violent offense” as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 6600 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (II) Oral copulation with a child who is under 14 years of age and more than 10 years younger than the defendant as defined by Section 288a, sodomy with another person who is under 14 years of age and more than 10 years younger than the defendant as defined by Section 286, or sexual penetration with another person who is under 14 years of age and more than 10 years younger than the defendant, as defined by Section 289. (III) A lewd or lascivious act involving a child under 14 years of age, in violation of Section 288. (IV) Any homicide offense, including any attempted homicide offense, defined in Sections 187 to 191.5, inclusive. (V) Solicitation to commit murder as defined in Section 653f. (VI) Assault with a machinegun on a peace officer or firefighter, as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 245. (VII) Possession of a weapon of mass destruction, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 11418. (VIII) Any serious or violent felony offense punishable in California by life imprisonment or death. (f) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, shall be applied in every case in which a defendant has one or more prior serious or violent felony convictions as defined in subdivision (d). The prosecuting attorney shall plead and prove each prior serious or violent felony conviction except as provided in paragraph (2). (2) The prosecuting attorney may move to dismiss or strike a prior serious or violent felony conviction allegation in the furtherance of justice pursuant to Section 1385, or if there is insufficient evidence to prove the prior serious or violent felony conviction. If upon the satisfaction of the court that there is insufficient evidence to prove the prior serious or violent felony conviction, the court may dismiss or strike the allegation. This section shall not be read to alter a court’s authority under Section 1385. (g) Prior serious or violent felony convictions shall not be used in plea bargaining as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 1192.7. The prosecution shall plead and prove all known prior serious or violent felony convictions and shall not enter into any agreement to strike or seek the dismissal of any prior serious or violent felony conviction allegation except as provided in paragraph (2) of subdivision (f). (h) All references to existing statutes in subdivisions (c) to (g), inclusive, are to statutes as they existed on November 7, 2012. (i) If any provision of subdivisions (b) to (h), inclusive, or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of those subdivisions that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of those subdivisions are severable. (j) The provisions of this section shall not be amended by the Legislature except by statute passed in each house by rollcall vote entered in the journal, two-thirds of the membership concurring, or by a statute that becomes effective only when approved by the electors.
- Strafschärfung — der Wert ist ein Zusatzterm, keine Grundstrafe
- lebenslange-haft
: Bewährung
Allgemeine Vorschriften · Teil 1
Stufe steht nicht im Gesetznur im Gesetzestext
Verhandlungsunfähigkeit des Angeklagten und Wiederherstellung der Verhandlungsfähigkeit
Wird der Angeklagte für verhandlungsfähig befunden, geht das Strafverfahren weiter. Wird er für verhandlungsunfähig befunden, wird das Verfahren ausgesetzt; das Gericht prüft, ob eine Behandlung zur Wiederherstellung der Verhandlungsfähigkeit im Interesse der Rechtspflege liegt, und ordnet gegebenenfalls die Unterbringung oder eine ambulante Behandlung an. Die Vorschrift regelt sehr ausführlich Zuständigkeiten, Berichtspflichten, Medikation gegen den Willen des Betroffenen und die Rückführung an das Gericht. Es handelt sich um eine Verfahrensvorschrift, nicht um einen Straftatbestand.
Strafe3 Monate Gefängnis
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 1370 — Verhandlungsunfähigkeit des Angeklagten und Wiederherstellung der VerhandlungsfähigkeitWortlautzu
Wird der Angeklagte für verhandlungsfähig befunden, geht das Strafverfahren weiter. Wird er für verhandlungsunfähig befunden, wird das Verfahren ausgesetzt; das Gericht prüft, ob eine Behandlung zur Wiederherstellung der Verhandlungsfähigkeit im Interesse der Rechtspflege liegt, und ordnet gegebenenfalls die Unterbringung oder eine ambulante Behandlung an. Die Vorschrift regelt sehr ausführlich Zuständigkeiten, Berichtspflichten, Medikation gegen den Willen des Betroffenen und die Rückführung an das Gericht. Es handelt sich um eine Verfahrensvorschrift, nicht um einen Straftatbestand.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Keine Strafandrohung. Die Vorschrift begrenzt die Unterbringung auf zwei Jahre ab Anordnung oder auf die Höchststrafe der schwersten angeklagten Tat, je nachdem, was kürzer ist; spätestens 90 Tage vor Ablauf ist der weiterhin verhandlungsunfähige Angeklagte an das anordnende Gericht zurückzuführen.
Die Übersetzung sieht hier keine Strafe, die Auswertung hat trotzdem eine Zahl gefunden — meist eine Frist im Verfahren. Es gilt der englische Wortlaut.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(c) (1) At the end of two years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendant’s term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court, and custody of the defendant shall be transferred without delay to the committing county and shall remain with the county until further order of the court.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced. (B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent and is not charged with an offense listed in subdivision (d) of Section 1001.36, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended, and the court shall do all of the following: (i) (I) Determine whether restoring the person to mental competence is in the interests of justice. (II) In exercising its discretion pursuant to this clause, the court shall consider the relevant circumstances of the charged offense, including the harm done to the victim, the defendant’s mental health condition, including, without limitation, any intellectual or developmental disability, the history of treatment, the criminal history of the defendant, whether the defendant is likely to face incarceration if convicted, whether the defendant has previously been found incompetent to stand trial, whether restoring the person to mental competence will enhance public safety, and any other relevant considerations. The court shall provide the defense and prosecution an opportunity to be heard on whether restoration is in the interests of justice. (ii) If restoring the person to mental competence is in the interests of justice, the court shall state its reasons orally on the record and the case shall proceed as provided in subparagraph (C). (iii) If restoring the person to mental competence is not in the interests of justice, the court shall conduct a hearing, pursuant to Section 1001.36, and, if the court deems the defendant eligible, grant diversion pursuant to that section for a period not to exceed two years from the date the individual is accepted into diversion or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the complaint, whichever is shorter. (I) The hearing shall be held no later than 30 days after the finding of incompetence. If the hearing is delayed beyond 30 days, the court shall order the defendant to be released on their own recognizance pending the hearing. (II) If the defendant performs satisfactorily on diversion pursuant to this subclause, at the end of the period of diversion, the court shall dismiss the criminal charges that were the subject of the criminal proceedings at the time of the initial diversion. (III) If the court finds the defendant ineligible or unsuitable for diversion based on the circumstances set forth in subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 1001.36, or if any of the conditions described in subdivision (g) of Section 1001.36 are present, the court may, after notice to the defendant, defense counsel, and the prosecution, hold a hearing to determine whether to do any of the following: (ia) Order modification of the treatment plan in accordance with a recommendation from the treatment provider. (ib) Refer the defendant to assisted outpatient treatment pursuant to Section 5346 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. A referral to assisted outpatient treatment may only occur in a county where services are available pursuant to Section 5348 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and the agency agrees to accept responsibility for treatment of the defendant. A hearing to determine eligibility for assisted outpatient treatment shall be held within 45 days after the finding of incompetence. If the hearing is delayed beyond 45 days, the court shall order the defendant, if confined in county jail, to be released on their own recognizance pending that hearing. If the defendant is accepted into assisted outpatient treatment, the charges shall be dismissed pursuant to Section 1385. (ic) Refer the defendant to the county conservatorship investigator in the county of commitment for possible conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. A defendant shall only be referred to the conservatorship investigator if it appears to the court or a qualified mental health expert that the defendant appears to be gravely disabled, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Any hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county of commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the county mental health director or the director’s designee and shall notify the county mental health director or their designee of the outcome of the proceedings. Before establishing a conservatorship, the public guardian shall investigate all available alternatives to conservatorship pursuant to Section 5354 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. If a petition is not filed within 30 days of the referral, the court shall order the defendant, if confined in county jail, to be released on their own recognizance pending conservatorship proceedings. The charges shall be dismissed pursuant to Section 1385 upon the filing of either a temporary or permanent conservatorship petition unless the basis for the petition is that the defendant is gravely disabled as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (id) Refer the defendant to the CARE program pursuant to Section 5978 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. A hearing to determine eligibility for the CARE program shall be held within 14 court days after the date on which the petition for the referral is filed. If the hearing is delayed beyond 14 court days, the court shall order the defendant, if confined in county jail, to be released on their own recognizance pending that hearing. If the defendant is accepted into the CARE program, the charges shall be dismissed pursuant to Section 1385. (ie) Reinstate competency proceedings, in which case the court shall credit any time spent in mental health diversion against the maximum term of commitment as specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c). (C) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent and restoring the defendant to competence is in the interests of justice or they are charged with an offense listed in subdivision (d) of Section 1001.36, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent. (i) The court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system approved by the community program director, or their designee, that will promote the defendant’s speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600. (ii) (I) If a defendant has been found mentally incompetent, and the court has ordered commitment to a State Department of State Hospitals facility as described in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and is not in the custody of the local sheriff, the department shall inform the sheriff when a placement in a facility becomes available and make reasonable efforts to coordinate a delivery by the sheriff to transport the defendant to the facility. If the department has made reasonable attempts for 90 days, starting with the date of commitment, and the defendant has not been transported, as originally ordered under clause (i), the department shall inform the court and sheriff in writing. (II) If the sheriff has not delivered the defendant to a State Department of State Hospitals facility within 90 days after the department’s written notice, the commitment to the State Department of State Hospitals shall be automatically stayed and the department may remove the defendant from the pending placement list until the court notifies the department in writing that the defendant is available for transport and the defendant shall regain their place on the pending placement list. (iii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of persons with a mental health disorder, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others. (iv) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the person’s release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others. (v) (I) If, at any time after the court finds that the defendant is mentally incompetent and before the defendant is transported to a facility pursuant to this section, the court is provided with any information that the defendant may benefit from diversion pursuant to Chapter 2.8A (commencing with Section 1001.35) of Title 6, the court may make a finding that the defendant is an appropriate candidate for diversion. (II) Notwithstanding subclause (I), if a defendant is found mentally incompetent and is transferred to a facility described in Section 4361.6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court may, at any time upon receiving any information that the defendant may benefit from diversion pursuant to Chapter 2.8A (commencing with Section 1001.35) of Title 6, make a finding that the defendant is an appropriate candidate for diversion. (vi) If a defendant is found by the court to be an appropriate candidate for diversion pursuant to clause (v), the defendant’s eligibility shall be determined pursuant to Section 1001.36. A defendant granted diversion may participate for the lesser of the period specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) or the applicable period described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 1001.36. If, during that period, the court determines that criminal proceedings should be reinstated pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 1001.36, the court shall, pursuant to Section 1369, appoint a psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, or any other expert the court may deem appropriate, to determine the defendant’s competence to stand trial. (vii) Upon the dismissal of charges at the conclusion of the period of diversion, pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1001.36, a defendant shall no longer be deemed incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this section. (viii) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice, in writing, of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (iii) or (iv) for inclusion in the defendant’s state summary criminal history information. (D) If at any time after the finding of mental incompetence, but before the defendant begins treatment in a program or facility to promote the defendant’s speedy restoration of mental competence pursuant to this section, there is a change in circumstance that affects the likelihood that the defendant will be able to be attain competence, either party may instead petition the court to proceed in accordance with subdivision (b). (E) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee. (F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected. (G) For purposes of this paragraph, “violent felony” means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5. (H) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant. (I) If, at any time after the court has declared a defendant incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this section, counsel for the defendant or a jail medical or mental health staff provider provides the court with substantial evidence that the defendant’s psychiatric symptoms have changed to such a degree as to create a doubt in the mind of the judge as to the defendant’s current mental incompetence, the court may appoint a psychiatrist or a licensed psychologist to opine as to whether the defendant has attained competence. If, in the opinion of that expert, the defendant has attained competence, the court shall proceed as if a certificate of restoration of competence has been returned pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1372. (J) (i) The State Department of State Hospitals may, pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, conduct an evaluation of the defendant in county custody to determine any of the following: (I) The defendant has attained competence. (II) There is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain competence in the foreseeable future. (III) The defendant should be referred to the county for further evaluation for potential participation in a county diversion program, if one exists, or to another outpatient treatment program. (ii) If, in the opinion of the department’s expert, the defendant has attained competence, the court shall proceed as if a certificate of restoration of competence has been returned pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1372. (iii) If, in the opinion of the department’s expert, there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall proceed pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. (2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows: (A) (i) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals. (ii) A defendant shall first be considered for placement in an outpatient treatment program, a community treatment program, or a diversion program, if any such program is available, unless a court, based upon the recommendation of the community program director or their designee, finds that either the clinical needs of the defendant or the risk to community safety, warrant placement in a State Department of State Hospitals facility. (B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows: (i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true: (I) Based upon the opinion of the psychiatrist or licensed psychologist offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendant’s mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendant’s mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to their physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and their condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant. (II) Based upon the opinion of the psychiatrist or licensed psychologist offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, the defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in the defendant being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendant’s present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence. (III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, and based upon the opinion of the psychiatrist offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendant’s ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is medically necessary and appropriate in light of their medical condition. (ii) (I) If the court finds the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) to be true, and if pursuant to the opinion offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, a psychiatrist has opined that treatment with antipsychotic medications is appropriate for the defendant, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of antipsychotic medication as needed, including on an involuntary basis, to be administered under the direction and supervision of a licensed psychiatrist. (II) If the court finds the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) to be true, and if pursuant to the opinion offered to the court pursuant subdivision (b) of Section 1369, a licensed psychologist has opined that treatment with antipsychotic medication may be appropriate for the defendant, the court shall issue an order authorizing treatment by a licensed psychiatrist on an involuntary basis. That treatment may include the administration of antipsychotic medication as needed, to be administered under the direction and supervision of a licensed psychiatrist. (III) If the court finds the conditions described in subclause (III) of clause (i) to be true, and if pursuant to the opinion offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, a psychiatrist has opined that it is appropriate to treat the defendant with antipsychotic medication, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of antipsychotic medication as needed, including on an involuntary basis, to be administered under the direction and supervision of a licensed psychiatrist. (iii) An order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendant’s treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter, including a county jail, shall remain in effect when the defendant returns to county custody pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), or pursuant to subparagraph (C) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 1372, but shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i). (iv) In all cases, the treating hospital, county jail, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of their counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendant’s consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily. (vi) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from their counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily. (vii) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendant’s appearance or behavior that would affect the defendant’s ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients’ rights advocate regarding the defendant’s rights under this section. (C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws their consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate. (D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients’ rights advocate. The attorney or patients’ rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendant’s rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for the defendant’s interests at the hearing, review the panel’s final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of their right to judicial review of the panel’s decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing: (I) To be given timely access to the defendant’s records. (II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right. (III) To present evidence at the hearing. (IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication. (V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendant’s behalf. (VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner. (ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrist’s certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition. (iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section. (iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period. (v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication. (vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period. (vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judge’s order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days. (viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7). (3) (A) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed: (i) The commitment order, which shall include a specification of the charges, an assessment of whether involuntary treatment with antipsychotic medications is warranted, and any orders by the court, pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2), authorizing involuntary treatment with antipsychotic medications. (ii) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c). (iii) (I) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment. (II) If a certificate of restoration of competency was filed with the court pursuant to Section 1372 and the court subsequently rejected the certification, a copy of the court order or minute order rejecting the certification shall be provided. The court order shall include a new computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the defendant’s maximum term of commitment based on the court’s rejection of the certification. (iv) State summary criminal history information. (v) Jail classification records for the defendant’s current incarceration. (vi) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency. (vii) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports. (viii) The community program director’s placement recommendation report. (ix) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. (x) Medical records, including jail mental health records. (B) If a defendant is committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, and the department determines that additional medical or mental health treatment records are needed for continuity of care, any private or public entity holding medical or mental health treatment records of that defendant shall release those records upon receiving a written request from the State Department of State Hospitals within 10 calendar days after the request. The private or public entity holding the medical or mental health treatment records shall comply with all applicable federal and state privacy laws prior to disclosure. The State Department of State Hospitals shall not release records obtained during the admission process under this subdivision, pursuant to Section 1798.68 of the Civil Code, or subdivision (b) of Section 5328 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the placement facility of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. (5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals. (6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2. Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee. (B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be electronically transferred or taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1). (7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendant’s patients’ rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients’ rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order. (B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendant’s attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on a petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order. (8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving their rapport with the defendant or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the defendant prior to the hearing. (b) (1) Within 90 days after a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is in county custody, the county jail shall provide access to the defendant for purposes of the State Department of State Hospitals conducting an evaluation of the defendant pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Based upon this evaluation, the State Department of State Hospitals may make a written report to the court within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a) concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication is necessary. If the defendant remains in county custody after the initial 90-day report, the State Department of State Hospitals may conduct an evaluation of the defendant pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and make a written report to the court concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication is necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report, in writing, to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendant’s progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court. (A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain mental competence in the foreseeable future, custody of the defendant shall be transferred without delay to the committing county and shall remain with the county until further order of the court. The defendant shall be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall not order the defendant returned to the custody of the State Department of State Hospitals under the same commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee. (B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following: (i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney. (ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing county’s sheriff that immediate transportation will be needed for the defendant pursuant to subparagraph (A). (C) If a county does not take custody of a defendant committed to the State Department of State Hospitals within 10 calendar days following notification made pursuant to clause (ii) of subparagraph (B), the county shall be charged the daily rate for a state hospital bed, as established by the State Department of State Hospitals. (2) The reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendant’s progress toward attaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following: (A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication. (B) If the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to their physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication. (C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if the defendant is not treated with antipsychotic medication. (D) Whether the defendant has a mental disorder for which medications are the only effective treatment. (E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendant’s ability to collaborate with counsel. (F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication. (G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency. (H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency. (I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency. (3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine if grounds for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication exist, whether or not an order was issued at the time of commitment, and shall do one of the following: (A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, any order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect. (B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, any order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated. (C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall determine whether to vacate the order or issue a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider the opinions in reports submitted pursuant to paragraph (1), including any opinions rendered pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The court may, upon a showing of good cause, set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a). The court shall require witness testimony to occur remotely, including clinical testimony pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. In-person witness testimony shall only be allowed upon a court’s finding of good cause. (D) If the report states a basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication and the court did not issue such order at the time of commitment, the court shall determine whether to issue an order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider the opinions in reports submitted pursuant to paragraph (1), including any opinions rendered pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The court may, upon a finding of good cause, set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether an order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a). The court shall require witness testimony to occur remotely, including clinical testimony pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. In-person witness testimony shall only be allowed upon a court’s finding of good cause. (E) This paragraph also applies to recommendations submitted pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1372, when a recommendation is included as to whether an order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medications should be extended or issued. (4) If it is determined by the court that treatment for the defendant’s mental impairment is not being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court, and, if the defendant is not in county custody, returned to the custody of the county. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee. (5) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a). (c) (1) At the end of two years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendant’s term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court, and custody of the defendant shall be transferred without delay to the committing county and shall remain with the county until further order of the court. The court shall not order the defendant returned to the custody of the State Department of State Hospitals under the same commitment. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders. The maximum term of commitment applies to the aggregate of all previous commitments. (2) (A) The medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall provide notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing county’s sheriff that immediate transportation will be needed for the defendant pursuant to paragraph (1). (B) If a county does not take custody of a defendant committed to the State Department of State Hospitals within 10 calendar days following notification pursuant to subparagraph (A), the county shall be charged the daily rate for a state hospital bed, as established by the State Department of State Hospitals. (3) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subdivision, subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), or paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b), and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendant’s counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendant’s counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings. (4) If a defendant is returned to court pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subdivision, subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), or paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b), and the prosecution elects to dismiss and refile charges pursuant to Section 1387, the court shall presume that the defendant is incompetent unless the court is presented with relevant and credible evidence that the defendant is competent. This evidence may include medical records, witness statements, or reports by qualified medical experts. If the court is satisfied that it has received substantial evidence that the defendant is competent, the court shall proceed as provided in Section 1369. Otherwise, the court shall find that the defendant is not mentally competent to stand trial and shall proceed as provided in paragraphs (1) and (3). The court shall not order the defendant returned to the custody of the State Department of State Hospitals for the purpose of restoration of competency. (5) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending. (6) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel. (d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, or in those instances where the defendant has been placed under a conservatorship pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant. (e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). (f) As used in this chapter, “community program director” means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (g) For the purpose of this section, “secure treatment facility” does not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility. (h) This section does not preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.
Sonstige Verfahren · Teil 2
Stufe steht nicht im Gesetznur im Gesetzestext
Beschleunigungsantrag inhaftierter Angeklagter in weiteren Verfahren
Wer bereits eine Freiheitsstrafe verbüsst oder untergebracht ist und gegen den noch ein weiteres Strafverfahren anhängig ist, kann der zuständigen Staatsanwaltschaft schriftlich seinen Haftort mitteilen und die Erledigung verlangen. Die Staatsanwaltschaft muss dann innerhalb von 90 Tagen die Hauptverhandlung oder die Strafzumessung durchführen. Geschieht das nicht, ist das Verfahren einzustellen. Es handelt sich um eine Verfahrensvorschrift, nicht um einen Straftatbestand.
Strafe3 Monate Gefängnis
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 1381 — Beschleunigungsantrag inhaftierter Angeklagter in weiteren VerfahrenWortlautzu
Wer bereits eine Freiheitsstrafe verbüsst oder untergebracht ist und gegen den noch ein weiteres Strafverfahren anhängig ist, kann der zuständigen Staatsanwaltschaft schriftlich seinen Haftort mitteilen und die Erledigung verlangen. Die Staatsanwaltschaft muss dann innerhalb von 90 Tagen die Hauptverhandlung oder die Strafzumessung durchführen. Geschieht das nicht, ist das Verfahren einzustellen. Es handelt sich um eine Verfahrensvorschrift, nicht um einen Straftatbestand.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Keine Strafandrohung. Verfahrensvorschrift: Wird die 90-Tage-Frist nach dem Antrag des Gefangenen versäumt, ist das anhängige Verfahren einzustellen.
Die Übersetzung sieht hier keine Strafe, die Auswertung hat trotzdem eine Zahl gefunden — meist eine Frist im Verfahren. Es gilt der englische Wortlaut.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
Whenever a defendant has been convicted, in any court of this state, of the commission of a felony or misdemeanor and has been sentenced to and has entered upon a term of imprisonment in a state prison or has been sentenced to and has entered upon a term of imprisonment in a county jail for a period of more than 90 days or has been committed to and placed in a county jail for more than 90 days as a condition of probation or has been committed to and placed in an institution subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Youth Authority or whenever any person has been committed to the custody of the Director of Corrections pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 3000) of Division 3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and has entered upon his or her term of commitment, and at the time of the entry upon the term of imprisonment or commitment there is pending, in any court of this state, any other indictment, information, complaint, or any criminal proceeding wherein the defendant remains to be sentenced, the district attorney of the county in which the matters are pending shall bring the defendant to trial or for sentencing within 90 days after the person shall have delivered to said district attorney written notice of the place of his or her imprisonment or commitment and his or her desire to be brought to trial or for sentencing unless a continuance beyond the 90 days is requested or consented to by the person, in open court, and the request or consent entered upon the minutes of the court in which event the 90-day period shall commence to run anew from the date to which the consent or request continued the trial or sentencing. In the event that the defendant is not brought to trial or for sentencing within the 90 days the court in which the charge or sentencing is pending shall, on motion or suggestion of the district attorney, or of the defendant or person confined in the county jail or committed to the custody of the Director of Corrections or his or her counsel, or of the Department of Corrections, or of the Department of the Youth Authority, or on its own motion, dismiss the action. If a charge is filed against a person during the time the person is serving a sentence in any state prison or county jail of this state or while detained by the Director of Corrections pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 3000) of Division 3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or while detained in any institution subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Youth Authority it is hereby made mandatory upon the district attorney of the county in which the charge is filed to bring it to trial within 90 days after the person shall have delivered to said district attorney written notice of the place of his or her imprisonment or commitment and his or her desire to be brought to trial upon the charge, unless a continuance is requested or consented to by the person, in open court, and the request or consent entered upon the minutes of the court, in which event the 90-day period shall commence to run anew from the date to which the request or consent continued the trial. In the event the action is not brought to trial within the 90 days the court in which the action is pending shall, on motion or suggestion of the district attorney, or of the defendant or person committed to the custody of the Director of Corrections or to a county jail or his or her counsel, or of the Department of Corrections, or of the Department of the Youth Authority, or on its own motion, dismiss the charge. The sheriff, custodian, or jailer shall endorse upon the written notice of the defendant’s desire to be brought to trial or for sentencing the cause of commitment, the date of commitment, and the date of release.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
Whenever a defendant has been convicted, in any court of this state, of the commission of a felony or misdemeanor and has been sentenced to and has entered upon a term of imprisonment in a state prison or has been sentenced to and has entered upon a term of imprisonment in a county jail for a period of more than 90 days or has been committed to and placed in a county jail for more than 90 days as a condition of probation or has been committed to and placed in an institution subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Youth Authority or whenever any person has been committed to the custody of the Director of Corrections pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 3000) of Division 3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and has entered upon his or her term of commitment, and at the time of the entry upon the term of imprisonment or commitment there is pending, in any court of this state, any other indictment, information, complaint, or any criminal proceeding wherein the defendant remains to be sentenced, the district attorney of the county in which the matters are pending shall bring the defendant to trial or for sentencing within 90 days after the person shall have delivered to said district attorney written notice of the place of his or her imprisonment or commitment and his or her desire to be brought to trial or for sentencing unless a continuance beyond the 90 days is requested or consented to by the person, in open court, and the request or consent entered upon the minutes of the court in which event the 90-day period shall commence to run anew from the date to which the consent or request continued the trial or sentencing. In the event that the defendant is not brought to trial or for sentencing within the 90 days the court in which the charge or sentencing is pending shall, on motion or suggestion of the district attorney, or of the defendant or person confined in the county jail or committed to the custody of the Director of Corrections or his or her counsel, or of the Department of Corrections, or of the Department of the Youth Authority, or on its own motion, dismiss the action. If a charge is filed against a person during the time the person is serving a sentence in any state prison or county jail of this state or while detained by the Director of Corrections pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 3000) of Division 3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or while detained in any institution subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Youth Authority it is hereby made mandatory upon the district attorney of the county in which the charge is filed to bring it to trial within 90 days after the person shall have delivered to said district attorney written notice of the place of his or her imprisonment or commitment and his or her desire to be brought to trial upon the charge, unless a continuance is requested or consented to by the person, in open court, and the request or consent entered upon the minutes of the court, in which event the 90-day period shall commence to run anew from the date to which the request or consent continued the trial. In the event the action is not brought to trial within the 90 days the court in which the action is pending shall, on motion or suggestion of the district attorney, or of the defendant or person committed to the custody of the Director of Corrections or to a county jail or his or her counsel, or of the Department of Corrections, or of the Department of the Youth Authority, or on its own motion, dismiss the charge. The sheriff, custodian, or jailer shall endorse upon the written notice of the defendant’s desire to be brought to trial or for sentencing the cause of commitment, the date of commitment, and the date of release.
Sonstige Verfahren · Teil 2
nur im Gesetzestext
Widerruf der Führungsaufsicht nach Haftentlassung
Hält die zuständige Bezirksbehörde mildere Massnahmen für nicht ausreichend, beantragt sie beim Gericht, die Führungsaufsicht zu widerrufen, zu ändern oder zu beenden. Die betroffene Person kann jederzeit schriftlich auf einen Anwalt und eine Anhörung verzichten, den Verstoss einräumen und die vorgeschlagene Änderung annehmen. Dem Antrag ist ein schriftlicher Bericht beizufügen.
Strafebis zu 6 Monate Gefängnis
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 3455 — Widerruf der Führungsaufsicht nach HaftentlassungWortlautzu
Hält die zuständige Bezirksbehörde mildere Massnahmen für nicht ausreichend, beantragt sie beim Gericht, die Führungsaufsicht zu widerrufen, zu ändern oder zu beenden. Die betroffene Person kann jederzeit schriftlich auf einen Anwalt und eine Anhörung verzichten, den Verstoss einräumen und die vorgeschlagene Änderung annehmen. Dem Antrag ist ein schriftlicher Bericht beizufügen.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Haft im Bezirksgefängnis von höchstens 180 Tagen je verhängter Sanktion.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(d) Confinement pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (a) shall not exceed a period of 180 days in a county jail for each custodial sanction.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) If the supervising county agency has determined, following application of its assessment processes, that intermediate sanctions as authorized in subdivision (b) of Section 3454 are not appropriate, the supervising county agency shall petition the court pursuant to Section 1203.2 to revoke, modify, or terminate postrelease community supervision. At any point during the process initiated pursuant to this section, a person may waive, in writing, his or her right to counsel, admit the violation of his or her postrelease community supervision, waive a court hearing, and accept the proposed modification of his or her postrelease community supervision. The petition shall include a written report that contains additional information regarding the petition, including the relevant terms and conditions of postrelease community supervision, the circumstances of the alleged underlying violation, the history and background of the violator, and any recommendations. The Judicial Council shall adopt forms and rules of court to establish uniform statewide procedures to implement this subdivision, including the minimum contents of supervision agency reports. Upon a finding that the person has violated the conditions of postrelease community supervision, the revocation hearing officer shall have authority to do all of the following: (1) Return the person to postrelease community supervision with modifications of conditions, if appropriate, including a period of incarceration in a county jail. (2) Revoke and terminate postrelease community supervision and order the person to confinement in a county jail. (3) Refer the person to a reentry court pursuant to Section 3015 or other evidence-based program in the court’s discretion. (b) (1) At any time during the period of postrelease community supervision, if a peace officer has probable cause to believe a person subject to postrelease community supervision is violating any term or condition of his or her release, the officer may, without a warrant or other process, arrest the person and bring him or her before the supervising county agency established by the county board of supervisors pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 3451. Additionally, an officer employed by the supervising county agency may seek a warrant and a court or its designated hearing officer appointed pursuant to Section 71622.5 of the Government Code shall have the authority to issue a warrant for that person’s arrest. (2) The court or its designated hearing officer shall have the authority to issue a warrant for a person who is the subject of a petition filed under this section who has failed to appear for a hearing on the petition or for any reason in the interests of justice, or to remand to custody a person who does appear at a hearing on the petition for any reason in the interests of justice. (3) Unless a person subject to postrelease community supervision is otherwise serving a period of flash incarceration, whenever a person who is subject to this section is arrested, with or without a warrant or the filing of a petition for revocation, the court may order the release of the person under supervision from custody under any terms and conditions the court deems appropriate. (c) The revocation hearing shall be held within a reasonable time after the filing of the revocation petition. Except as provided in paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), based upon a showing of a preponderance of the evidence that a person under supervision poses an unreasonable risk to public safety, or that the person may not appear if released from custody, or for any reason in the interests of justice, the supervising county agency shall have the authority to make a determination whether the person should remain in custody pending the first court appearance on a petition to revoke postrelease community supervision, and upon that determination, may order the person confined pending his or her first court appearance. (d) Confinement pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (a) shall not exceed a period of 180 days in a county jail for each custodial sanction. (e) A person shall not remain under supervision or in custody pursuant to this title on or after three years from the date of the person’s initial entry onto postrelease community supervision, except when his or her supervision is tolled pursuant to Section 1203.2 or subdivision (b) of Section 3456.
- Einstufung aus der Strafhöhe abgeleitet, nicht aus dem Wortlaut
Führungsaufsicht nach der Haftentlassung · Teil 3
nur im Gesetzestext
Landesweite Vorstrafenauskunft des Justizministeriums
Das Justizministerium führt die landesweite zusammenfassende Vorstrafenauskunft mit Personendaten, Fingerabdrücken, Lichtbildern, Festnahmen, Anklagen, Verfahrensausgängen und Strafen. Die Vorschrift zählt sehr ausführlich auf, welche Gerichte, Behörden, Berufsverbände und sonstigen Stellen diese Auskunft zur Erfüllung ihrer Aufgaben erhalten dürfen. Für Auskünfte zu Einstellungs-, Zertifizierungs- und Lizenzierungszwecken gelten besondere Schutzvorschriften. Verstösse gegen diese Beschränkungen sind strafbar und begründen zusätzlich einen Schadensersatzanspruch.
Strafebis zu 6 Monate oder bis $1.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 11105 — Landesweite Vorstrafenauskunft des JustizministeriumsWortlautzu
Das Justizministerium führt die landesweite zusammenfassende Vorstrafenauskunft mit Personendaten, Fingerabdrücken, Lichtbildern, Festnahmen, Anklagen, Verfahrensausgängen und Strafen. Die Vorschrift zählt sehr ausführlich auf, welche Gerichte, Behörden, Berufsverbände und sonstigen Stellen diese Auskunft zur Erfüllung ihrer Aufgaben erhalten dürfen. Für Auskünfte zu Einstellungs-, Zertifizierungs- und Lizenzierungszwecken gelten besondere Schutzvorschriften. Verstösse gegen diese Beschränkungen sind strafbar und begründen zusätzlich einen Schadensersatzanspruch.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Ein Verstoss gegen den betreffenden Absatz ist ein Vergehen und gibt dem geschädigten gegenwärtigen oder künftigen Beschäftigten einen Anspruch gegen das Versorgungs- oder Kabelunternehmen auf Ersatz des unmittelbar verursachten Schadens.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(iv) A violation of this paragraph is a misdemeanor, and shall give the current or prospective employee who is injured by the violation a cause of action against the public utility or cable corporation to recover damages proximately caused by the violations. A public utility’s or cable corporation’s request for state summary criminal history information for purposes of employing current or prospective employees who may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds in the course of their employment shall be deemed a “compelling need” as required to be shown in this subdivision.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) The Department of Justice shall maintain state summary criminal history information. (2) As used in this section: (A) “State summary criminal history information” means the master record of information compiled by the Attorney General pertaining to the identification and criminal history of a person, such as name, date of birth, physical description, fingerprints, photographs, dates of arrests, arresting agencies and booking numbers, charges, dispositions, sentencing information, and similar data about the person. (B) “State summary criminal history information” does not refer to records and data compiled by criminal justice agencies other than the Attorney General, nor does it refer to records of complaints to or investigations conducted by, or records of intelligence information or security procedures of, the office of the Attorney General and the Department of Justice. (b) The Attorney General shall furnish state summary criminal history information to the following, if needed in the course of their duties, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any other entity, in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply: (1) The courts of the state. (2) Peace officers of the state, as defined in Section 830.1, subdivisions (a) and (e) of Section 830.2, subdivision (a) of Section 830.3, subdivision (a) of Section 830.31, and subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 830.5. (3) District attorneys of the state. (4) Prosecuting city attorneys or city prosecutors of a city within the state. (5) City attorneys pursuing civil gang injunctions pursuant to Section 186.22a, drug abatement actions pursuant to Section 3479 or 3480 of the Civil Code or Section 11571 of the Health and Safety Code, or a city attorney or county counsel pursuing gun violence restraining orders pursuant to Division 3.2 (commencing with Section 18100) of Title 2 of Part 6. (6) Probation officers of the state. (7) Parole officers of the state. (8) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in proceedings upon a petition for a certificate of rehabilitation and pardon pursuant to Section 4852.08. (9) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in a criminal case or a juvenile delinquency proceeding, including all appeals and postconviction motions, or a parole, mandatory supervision pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170, or postrelease community supervision revocation or revocation extension proceeding, if the information is requested in the course of representation. (10) An agency, officer, or official of the state if the state summary criminal history information is required to implement a statute or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. The agency, officer, or official of the state authorized by this paragraph to receive state summary criminal history information may perform state and federal criminal history information checks as provided for in subdivision (u). The Department of Justice shall provide a state or federal response to the agency, officer, or official pursuant to subdivision (p). (11) A city, county, city and county, or district, if access is needed in order to assist that agency in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, and if the access is specifically authorized by the city council, board of supervisors, or governing board of the city, county, or district if the state summary criminal history information is required to implement a statute, ordinance, or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. The city, county, city and county, or district authorized by this paragraph may also transmit fingerprint images and related information to the Department of Justice to be transmitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation. (12) The subject of the state summary criminal history information under procedures established under Article 5 (commencing with Section 11120). (13) A person or entity when access is expressly authorized by statute if the criminal history information is required to implement a statute or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. (14) Health officers of a city, county, city and county, or district when in the performance of their official duties enforcing Section 120175 of the Health and Safety Code. (15) A managing or supervising correctional officer of a county jail or other county correctional facility. (16) A humane society, or society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, for the specific purpose of complying with Section 14502 of the Corporations Code for the appointment of humane officers. (17) Local child support agencies established by Section 17304 of the Family Code. When a local child support agency closes a support enforcement case containing state summary criminal history information, the agency shall delete or purge from the file and destroy documents or information concerning or arising from offenses for or of which the parent has been arrested, charged, or convicted, other than for offenses related to the parent’s having failed to provide support for minor children, consistent with the requirements of Section 17531 of the Family Code. (18) County child welfare agency personnel who have been delegated the authority of county probation officers to access state summary criminal history information pursuant to Section 272 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Information from criminal history records provided pursuant to this subdivision shall not be used for a purpose other than those specified in this section and Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. When an agency obtains records both on the basis of name checks and fingerprint checks, final placement decisions shall be based only on the records obtained pursuant to the fingerprint check. (19) The court of a tribe, or court of a consortium of tribes, that has entered into an agreement with the state pursuant to Section 10553.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. This information may be used only for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and for tribal approval or tribal licensing of foster care or adoptive homes. Article 6 (commencing with Section 11140) shall apply to officers, members, and employees of a tribal court receiving state summary criminal history information pursuant to this section. (20) Child welfare agency personnel of a tribe or consortium of tribes that has entered into an agreement with the state pursuant to Section 10553.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and to whom the state has delegated duties under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 272 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The purposes for use of the information shall be for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and for tribal approval or tribal licensing of foster care or adoptive homes. When an agency obtains records on the basis of name checks and fingerprint checks, final placement decisions shall be based only on the records obtained pursuant to the fingerprint check. Article 6 (commencing with Section 11140) shall apply to child welfare agency personnel receiving criminal record offender information pursuant to this section. (21) An officer providing conservatorship investigations pursuant to Sections 5351, 5354, and 5356 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (22) A court investigator providing investigations or reviews in conservatorships pursuant to Section 1826, 1850, 1851, or 2250.6 of the Probate Code. (23) A person authorized to conduct a guardianship investigation pursuant to Section 1513 of the Probate Code. (24) A humane officer pursuant to Section 14502 of the Corporations Code for the purposes of performing the officer’s duties. (25) A public agency described in subdivision (b) of Section 15975 of the Government Code, for the purpose of oversight and enforcement policies with respect to its contracted providers. (26) (A) A state entity, or its designee, that receives federal tax information. A state entity or its designee that is authorized by this paragraph to receive state summary criminal history information also may transmit fingerprint images and related information to the Department of Justice to be transmitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of the state entity or its designee obtaining federal-level criminal offender record information from the Department of Justice. This information shall be used only for the purposes set forth in Section 1044 of the Government Code. (B) For purposes of this paragraph, “federal tax information,” “state entity” and “designee” are as defined in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3), respectively, of subdivision (f) of Section 1044 of the Government Code. (27) The director of the State Department of State Hospitals, or their designee, for use related to research and evaluation studies described in Section 4046 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and subject to the limitations described in that section. (c) The Attorney General may furnish state summary criminal history information and, when specifically authorized by this subdivision, federal-level criminal history information upon a showing of a compelling need to any of the following, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any other entity in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply: (1) A public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, that operates a nuclear energy facility when access is needed in order to assist in employing persons to work at the facility, provided that, if the Attorney General supplies the data, the Attorney General shall furnish a copy of the data to the person to whom the data relates. (2) A peace officer of the state other than those included in subdivision (b). (3) An illegal dumping enforcement officer as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 830.7. (4) A peace officer of another country. (5) Public officers, other than peace officers, of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States, provided that access to records similar to state summary criminal history information is expressly authorized by a statute of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States if the information is needed for the performance of their official duties. (6) A person when disclosure is requested by a probation, parole, or peace officer with the consent of the subject of the state summary criminal history information and for purposes of furthering the rehabilitation of the subject. (7) The courts of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States. (8) Peace officers of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States. (9) An individual who is the subject of the record requested if needed in conjunction with an application to enter the United States or a foreign nation. (10) (A) (i) A public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, or a cable corporation as defined in subparagraph (B), if receipt of criminal history information is needed in order to assist in employing current or prospective employees, contract employees, or subcontract employees who, in the course of their employment, may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds. The information provided shall be limited to the record of convictions and arrests for which the person is released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (ii) If the Attorney General supplies the data pursuant to this paragraph, the Attorney General shall furnish a copy of the data to the current or prospective employee to whom the data relates. (iii) State summary criminal history information is confidential and the receiving public utility or cable corporation shall not disclose its contents, other than for the purpose for which it was acquired. The state summary criminal history information in the possession of the public utility or cable corporation and all copies made from it shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after employment or promotion or transfer is denied or granted, except for those cases where a current or prospective employee is out on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial, in which case the state summary criminal history information and all copies shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after the case is resolved. (iv) A violation of this paragraph is a misdemeanor, and shall give the current or prospective employee who is injured by the violation a cause of action against the public utility or cable corporation to recover damages proximately caused by the violations. A public utility’s or cable corporation’s request for state summary criminal history information for purposes of employing current or prospective employees who may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds in the course of their employment shall be deemed a “compelling need” as required to be shown in this subdivision. (v) This section shall not be construed as imposing a duty upon public utilities or cable corporations to request state summary criminal history information on current or prospective employees. (B) For purposes of this paragraph, “cable corporation” means a corporation or firm that transmits or provides television, computer, or telephone services by cable, digital, fiber optic, satellite, or comparable technology to subscribers for a fee. (C) Requests for federal-level criminal history information received by the Department of Justice from entities authorized pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of Justice. Federal-level criminal history information received or compiled by the Department of Justice may then be disseminated to the entities referenced in subparagraph (A), as authorized by law. (11) A campus of the California State University or the University of California, or a four-year college or university accredited by a regional accreditation organization approved by the United States Department of Education, if needed in conjunction with an application for admission by a convicted felon to a special education program for convicted felons, including, but not limited to, university alternatives and halfway houses. Only conviction information shall be furnished. The college or university may require the convicted felon to be fingerprinted, and any inquiry to the department under this section shall include the convicted felon’s fingerprints and any other information specified by the department. (12) A foreign government, if requested by the individual who is the subject of the record requested, if needed in conjunction with the individual’s application to adopt a minor child who is a citizen of that foreign nation. Requests for information pursuant to this paragraph shall be in accordance with the process described in Sections 11122 to 11124, inclusive. The response shall be provided to the foreign government or its designee and to the individual who requested the information. (d) Whenever an authorized request for state summary criminal history information pertains to a person whose fingerprints are on file with the Department of Justice and the department has no criminal history of that person, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the fingerprint card accompanying the request for information, if any, may be stamped “no criminal record” and returned to the person or entity making the request. (e) Whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished as the result of an application and is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the Department of Justice may charge the person or entity making the request a fee that it determines to be sufficient to reimburse the department for the cost of furnishing the information. In addition, the Department of Justice may add a surcharge to the fee to fund maintenance and improvements to the systems from which the information is obtained. Notwithstanding any other law, a person or entity required to pay a fee to the department for information received under this section may charge the applicant a fee sufficient to reimburse the person or entity for this expense. All moneys received by the department pursuant to this section, Sections 11105.3 and 26190, and former Section 13588 of the Education Code shall be deposited in a special account in the General Fund to be available for expenditure by the department to offset costs incurred pursuant to those sections and for maintenance and improvements to the systems from which the information is obtained upon appropriation by the Legislature. (f) Whenever there is a conflict, the processing of criminal fingerprints and fingerprints of applicants for security guard or alarm agent registrations or firearms qualification permits submitted pursuant to Section 7583.9, 7583.23, 7596.3, or 7598.4 of the Business and Professions Code shall take priority over the processing of other applicant fingerprints. (g) It is not a violation of this section to disseminate statistical or research information obtained from a record, provided that the identity of the subject of the record is not disclosed. (h) It is not a violation of this section to include information obtained from a record in (1) a transcript or record of a judicial or administrative proceeding or (2) any other public record if the inclusion of the information in the public record is authorized by a court, statute, or decisional law. (i) Notwithstanding any other law, the Department of Justice or a state or local law enforcement agency may require the submission of fingerprints for the purpose of conducting state summary criminal history information checks that are authorized by law. (j) The state summary criminal history information shall include any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 1367) of Title 10 of Part 2 arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290. (k) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization and the information is to be used for peace officer employment or certification purposes. As used in this subdivision, a peace officer is defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Every arrest or detention, except for an arrest or detention resulting in an exoneration, provided, however, that where the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition for the arrest, the Department of Justice first makes a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. (D) Every successful diversion. (E) Every date and agency name associated with all retained peace officer or nonsworn law enforcement agency employee preemployment criminal offender record information search requests. (F) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (G) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (l) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by a criminal justice agency or organization as defined in Section 13101, and the information is to be used for criminal justice employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Every arrest for an offense for which the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition or that did not result in a conviction, provided that the Department of Justice first makes a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. However, information concerning an arrest shall not be disclosed if the records of the Department of Justice indicate or if the genuine effort reveals that the subject was exonerated, successfully completed a diversion or deferred entry of judgment program, or the arrest was deemed a detention, or the subject was granted relief pursuant to Section 851.91. (D) Every date and agency name associated with all retained peace officer or nonsworn law enforcement agency employee preemployment criminal offender record information search requests. (E) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (F) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (m) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization pursuant to Section 1522, 1568.09, 1569.17, or 1596.871 of the Health and Safety Code, or a statute that incorporates the criteria of any of those sections or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction of an offense rendered against the applicant, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.49. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Every arrest for an offense for which the State Department of Social Services is required by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1522 of the Health and Safety Code to determine if an applicant has been arrested. However, if the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition for an arrest, the Department of Justice shall first make a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. (D) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (E) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (3) Notwithstanding the requirements of the sections referenced in paragraph (1) of this subdivision, the Department of Justice shall not disseminate information about an arrest subsequently deemed a detention or an arrest that resulted in the successful completion of a diversion program, exoneration, or a grant of relief pursuant to Section 851.91. (n) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information, to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an authorized agency, organization, or individual pursuant to any of the following: (A) Paragraph (10) of subdivision (c), when the information is to be used by a cable corporation. (B) Section 11105.3 or 11105.4. (C) Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (D) A statute that incorporates the criteria of any of the statutory provisions listed in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C), or of this subdivision, by reference. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.49, rendered against the applicant for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. However, with the exception of those offenses for which registration is required pursuant to Section 290, the Department of Justice shall not disseminate information pursuant to this subdivision unless the conviction occurred within 10 years of the date of the agency’s request for information or the conviction is over 10 years old but the subject of the request was incarcerated within 10 years of the agency’s request for information. (B) Every arrest for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (D) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (o) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization pursuant to Section 379 or 1300 of the Financial Code or a statute that incorporates the criteria of either of those sections or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in Section 1300 of the Financial Code, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.49. (B) Every arrest for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in Section 1300 of the Financial Code for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (p) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an agency, organization, or individual not defined in subdivision (k), (l), (m), (n), or (o), or a statute that incorporates the criteria of that section or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.425, 1203.44, or 1203.49. The Commission on Teacher Credentialing, school districts, county offices of education, charter schools, private schools, state special schools for the blind and deaf, or any other entity required to have a background check because of a contract with a school district, county office of education, charter school, private school, or state special school for the blind and deaf, shall receive every conviction rendered against an applicant, retroactive to January 1, 2020, regardless of relief granted pursuant to Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.425, or 1203.49. (B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A) or any other law, information for a conviction for a controlled substance offense listed in Section 11350 or 11377, or former Section 11500 or 11500.5, of the Health and Safety Code that is more than five years old, for which relief is granted pursuant to Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.425, or 1203.49, shall not be disseminated. (C) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (D) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (E) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (q) All agencies, organizations, or individuals defined in subdivisions (k), (l), (m), (n), (o), and (p) may contract with the Department of Justice for subsequent notification pursuant to Section 11105.2. This subdivision shall not supersede sections that mandate an agency, organization, or individual to contract with the Department of Justice for subsequent notification pursuant to Section 11105.2. (r) This section does not require the Department of Justice to cease compliance with any other statutory notification requirements. (s) The provisions of Section 50.12 of Title 28 of the Code of Federal Regulations are to be followed in processing federal criminal history information. (t) Whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency, organization, or individual defined in subdivisions (k) to (p), inclusive, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the authorized agency, organization, or individual shall expeditiously furnish a copy of the information to the person to whom the information relates if the information is a basis for an adverse employment, licensing, or certification decision. When furnished other than in person, the copy shall be delivered to the last contact information provided by the applicant. (u) (1) If a fingerprint-based criminal history information check is required pursuant to any statute, that check shall be requested from the Department of Justice and shall be applicable to the person identified in the referencing statute. The agency or entity identified in the statute shall submit to the Department of Justice fingerprint images and related information required by the Department of Justice of the types of applicants identified in the referencing statute, for the purpose of obtaining information as to the existence and content of a record of state or federal convictions and state or federal arrests and also information as to the existence and content of a record of the state or federal arrests for which the Department of Justice establishes that the person is free on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial or appeal. (2) If requested, the Department of Justice shall transmit fingerprint images and related information received pursuant to this section to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining a federal criminal history information check. The Department of Justice shall review the information returned from the Federal Bureau of Investigation, and compile and disseminate a response to the agency or entity identified in the referencing statute, pursuant to the identified subdivision. The Department of Justice shall not disseminate federal criminal history information to a private entity that is unauthorized to receive it under federal law. (3) The Department of Justice shall provide a state response to the agency or entity identified in the referencing statute, pursuant to the identified subdivision. (4) The agency or entity identified in the referencing statute shall request from the Department of Justice subsequent notification service, as provided pursuant to Section 11105.2, for persons described in the referencing statute. (5) The Department of Justice shall charge a fee sufficient to cover the reasonable cost of processing the request described in this subdivision.
Kein eigenes Strafmaß im Text. Dann gilt Cal. Penal Code § 19: bis 6 Monate Haft oder bis $1.000 — diese Zahlen stehen dort, nicht hier.
Ermittlung und Bekämpfung von Straftaten und Straftätern · Teil 4
nur im Gesetzestext
Meldepflicht bei Verdacht auf Kindesmisshandlung
Wer zu den gesetzlich bestimmten Meldepflichtigen gehört, etwa Ärzte, Lehrer, Erzieher oder Sozialarbeiter, muss eine Meldung erstatten, sobald er in beruflicher Eigenschaft von einer Misshandlung oder Vernachlässigung eines Kindes erfährt oder sie begründet vermutet. Zuerst ist sofort telefonisch zu melden, danach innerhalb von 36 Stunden schriftlich. „Begründeter Verdacht“ heisst, dass eine vernünftige Person in gleicher Lage aufgrund der Tatsachen einen solchen Verdacht hegen dürfte. Wer die Meldung unterlässt, macht sich strafbar.
Strafe6 Monate Gefängnis· dazu $1.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 11166 — Meldepflicht bei Verdacht auf KindesmisshandlungWortlautzu
Wer zu den gesetzlich bestimmten Meldepflichtigen gehört, etwa Ärzte, Lehrer, Erzieher oder Sozialarbeiter, muss eine Meldung erstatten, sobald er in beruflicher Eigenschaft von einer Misshandlung oder Vernachlässigung eines Kindes erfährt oder sie begründet vermutet. Zuerst ist sofort telefonisch zu melden, danach innerhalb von 36 Stunden schriftlich. „Begründeter Verdacht“ heisst, dass eine vernünftige Person in gleicher Lage aufgrund der Tatsachen einen solchen Verdacht hegen dürfte. Wer die Meldung unterlässt, macht sich strafbar.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Vergehen: Freiheitsstrafe bis zu sechs Monaten im Bezirksgefängnis oder Geldstrafe von 1.000 Dollar oder beides.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(c) A mandated reporter who fails to report an incident of known or reasonably suspected child abuse or neglect as required by this section is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by up to six months confinement in a county jail or by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000) or by both that imprisonment and fine. If a mandated reporter intentionally conceals the mandated reporter’s failure to report an incident
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) Except as provided in subdivision (d), and in Section 11166.05, a mandated reporter shall make a report to an agency specified in Section 11165.9 whenever the mandated reporter, in the mandated reporter’s professional capacity or within the scope of the mandated reporter’s employment, has knowledge of or observes a child whom the mandated reporter knows or reasonably suspects has been the victim of child abuse or neglect. The mandated reporter shall make an initial report by telephone to the agency immediately or as soon as is practicably possible, and shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a written followup report within 36 hours of receiving the information concerning the incident. The mandated reporter may include with the report any nonprivileged documentary evidence the mandated reporter possesses relating to the incident. (1) For purposes of this article, “reasonable suspicion” means that it is objectively reasonable for a person to entertain a suspicion, based upon facts that could cause a reasonable person in a like position, drawing, when appropriate, on the person’s training and experience, to suspect child abuse or neglect. “Reasonable suspicion” does not require certainty that child abuse or neglect has occurred nor does it require a specific medical indication of child abuse or neglect; any “reasonable suspicion” is sufficient. For purposes of this article, the pregnancy of a minor does not, in and of itself, constitute a basis for a reasonable suspicion of sexual abuse. (2) The agency shall be notified, and a report shall be prepared and sent by fax or electronic transmission, even if the child has expired, regardless of whether or not the possible abuse was a factor contributing to the death, and even if suspected child abuse was discovered during an autopsy. (3) A report made by a mandated reporter pursuant to this section shall be known as a mandated report. (b) If, after reasonable efforts, a mandated reporter is unable to submit an initial report by telephone, the mandated reporter shall immediately or as soon as is practicably possible, by fax or electronic transmission, make a one-time automated written report on the form prescribed by the Department of Justice, and shall also be available to respond to a telephone followup call by the agency with which the mandated reporter filed the report. A mandated reporter who files a one-time automated written report because the mandated reporter was unable to submit an initial report by telephone is not required to submit a written followup report. (1) The one-time automated written report form prescribed by the Department of Justice shall be clearly identifiable so that it is not mistaken for a standard written followup report. In addition, the automated one-time report shall contain a section that allows the mandated reporter to state the reason the initial telephone call was not able to be completed. The reason for the submission of the one-time automated written report in lieu of the procedure prescribed in subdivision (a) shall be captured in the statewide child welfare information system. The department shall work with stakeholders to modify reporting forms and the statewide child welfare information system as is necessary to accommodate the changes enacted by these provisions. (2) This subdivision shall not become operative until the statewide child welfare information system is updated to capture the information prescribed in this subdivision. (3) This subdivision shall become inoperative three years after this subdivision becomes operative or on January 1, 2009, whichever occurs first. (4) This section does not supersede the requirement that a mandated reporter first attempt to make a report via telephone, or that agencies specified in Section 11165.9 accept reports from mandated reporters and other persons as required. (c) A mandated reporter who fails to report an incident of known or reasonably suspected child abuse or neglect as required by this section is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by up to six months confinement in a county jail or by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000) or by both that imprisonment and fine. If a mandated reporter intentionally conceals the mandated reporter’s failure to report an incident known by the mandated reporter to be abuse or severe neglect under this section, the failure to report is a continuing offense until an agency specified in Section 11165.9 discovers the offense. (d) (1) A clergy member who acquires knowledge or a reasonable suspicion of child abuse or neglect during a penitential communication is not subject to subdivision (a). For the purposes of this subdivision, “penitential communication” means a communication, intended to be in confidence, including, but not limited to, a sacramental confession, made to a clergy member who, in the course of the discipline or practice of the clergy member’s church, denomination, or organization, is authorized or accustomed to hear those communications, and under the discipline, tenets, customs, or practices of the clergy member’s church, denomination, or organization, has a duty to keep those communications secret. (2) This subdivision does not modify or limit a clergy member’s duty to report known or suspected child abuse or neglect when the clergy member is acting in some other capacity that would otherwise make the clergy member a mandated reporter. (3) (A) On or before January 1, 2004, a clergy member or any custodian of records for the clergy member may report to an agency specified in Section 11165.9 that the clergy member or any custodian of records for the clergy member, prior to January 1, 1997, in the clergy member’s professional capacity or within the scope of the clergy member’s employment, other than during a penitential communication, acquired knowledge or had a reasonable suspicion that a child had been the victim of sexual abuse and that the clergy member or any custodian of records for the clergy member did not previously report the abuse to an agency specified in Section 11165.9. The provisions of Section 11172 shall apply to all reports made pursuant to this paragraph. (B) This paragraph shall apply even if the victim of the known or suspected abuse has reached the age of majority by the time the required report is made. (C) The local law enforcement agency shall have jurisdiction to investigate any report of child abuse made pursuant to this paragraph even if the report is made after the victim has reached the age of majority. (e) (1) A commercial film, photographic print, or image processor who has knowledge of or observes, within the scope of that person’s professional capacity or employment, any film, photograph, videotape, negative, slide, or any representation of information, data, or an image, including, but not limited to, any film, filmstrip, photograph, negative, slide, photocopy, videotape, video laser disc, computer hardware, computer software, computer floppy disk, data storage medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated equipment, or computer-generated image depicting a child under 16 years of age engaged in an act of sexual conduct, shall, immediately or as soon as practicably possible, telephonically report the instance of reasonably suspected abuse to the law enforcement agency located in the county in which the images are seen. Within 36 hours of receiving the information concerning the incident, the reporter shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a written followup report of the incident with a copy of the image or material attached. (2) A commercial computer technician who has knowledge of or observes, within the scope of the technician’s professional capacity or employment, any representation of information, data, or an image, including, but not limited to, any computer hardware, computer software, computer file, computer floppy disk, data storage medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated equipment, or computer-generated image that is retrievable in perceivable form and that is intentionally saved, transmitted, or organized on an electronic medium, depicting a child under 16 years of age engaged in an act of sexual conduct, shall immediately, or as soon as practicably possible, telephonically report the instance of reasonably suspected abuse to the law enforcement agency located in the county in which the images or materials are seen. As soon as practicably possible after receiving the information concerning the incident, the reporter shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a written followup report of the incident with a brief description of the images or materials. (3) For purposes of this article, “commercial computer technician” includes an employee designated by an employer to receive reports pursuant to an established reporting process authorized by subparagraph (B) of paragraph (43) of subdivision (a) of Section 11165.7. (4) As used in this subdivision, “electronic medium” includes, but is not limited to, a recording, CD-ROM, magnetic disk memory, magnetic tape memory, CD, DVD, thumbdrive, or any other computer hardware or media. (5) As used in this subdivision, “sexual conduct” means any of the following: (A) Sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital, anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or opposite sex or between humans and animals. (B) Penetration of the vagina or rectum by any object. (C) Masturbation for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the viewer. (D) Sadomasochistic abuse for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the viewer. (E) Exhibition of the genitals, pubic, or rectal areas of a person for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the viewer. (f) Any mandated reporter who knows or reasonably suspects that the home or institution in which a child resides is unsuitable for the child because of abuse or neglect of the child shall bring the condition to the attention of the agency to which, and at the same time as, the mandated reporter makes a report of the abuse or neglect pursuant to subdivision (a). (g) Any other person who has knowledge of or observes a child whom the person knows or reasonably suspects has been a victim of child abuse or neglect may report the known or suspected instance of child abuse or neglect to an agency specified in Section 11165.9. For purposes of this section, “any other person” includes a mandated reporter who acts in the person’s private capacity and not in the person’s professional capacity or within the scope of the person’s employment. (h) When two or more persons, who are required to report, jointly have knowledge of a known or reasonably suspected instance of child abuse or neglect, and when there is agreement among them, the telephone report may be made by a member of the team selected by mutual agreement and a single report may be made and signed by the selected member of the reporting team. Any member who has knowledge that the member designated to report has failed to do so shall thereafter make the report. (i) (1) The reporting duties under this section are individual, and no supervisor or administrator may impede or inhibit the reporting duties, and no person making a report shall be subject to any sanction for making the report. However, internal procedures to facilitate reporting and apprise supervisors and administrators of reports may be established provided that they are not inconsistent with this article. An internal policy shall not direct an employee to allow the employee’s supervisor to file or process a mandated report under any circumstances. (2) The internal procedures shall not require any employee required to make reports pursuant to this article to disclose the employee’s identity to the employer. (3) Reporting the information regarding knowledge of or reasonably suspected child abuse or neglect to an employer, supervisor, school principal, school counselor, coworker, or other person shall not be a substitute for making a mandated report to an agency specified in Section 11165.9. (j) (1) A county probation or welfare department shall immediately, or as soon as practicably possible, report by telephone, fax, or electronic transmission to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the case, to the agency given the responsibility for investigation of cases under Section 300 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and to the district attorney’s office every known or reasonably suspected instance of child abuse or neglect, as defined in Section 11165.6, except acts or omissions coming within subdivision (b) of Section 11165.2, or reports made pursuant to Section 11165.13 based on risk to a child that relates solely to the inability of the parent to provide the child with regular care due to the parent’s substance abuse, which shall be reported only to the county welfare or probation department. A county probation or welfare department also shall send by fax or electronic transmission a written report thereof within 36 hours of receiving the information concerning the incident to any agency to which it makes a telephone report under this subdivision. (2) A county probation or welfare department shall immediately, and in no case in more than 24 hours, report to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the case after receiving information that a child or youth who is receiving child welfare services has been identified as the victim of commercial sexual exploitation, as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 11165.1. (3) (A) When a child or youth who is receiving child welfare services and who is reasonably believed to be the victim of, or is at risk of being the victim of, commercial sexual exploitation, as defined in Section 11165.1, is missing or has been abducted, the county probation or welfare department shall immediately, or in no case later than 24 hours from receipt of the information, report the incident to the appropriate law enforcement authority for entry into the National Crime Information Center database of the Federal Bureau of Investigation and to the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children (NCMEC). (B) The report submitted by the county probation or welfare department to law enforcement agencies and NCMEC shall include, where reasonably possible, all of the following: (i) A photo of the missing or abducted child or youth. (ii) A description of the child’s or youth’s physical features, such as height, weight, sex, ethnicity, race, hair color, and eye color. (iii) Endangerment information, such as the child’s or youth’s pregnancy status, prescription medications, suicidal tendencies, vulnerability to being sex trafficked, and other health or risk factors, to the extent such information is released in compliance with other applicable laws. (iv) Information about whether the child or youth is or may be an Indian child, as defined in Section 224.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, including the name of the child’s tribe. (C) For each child or youth described in this paragraph, the county probation or welfare department shall maintain regular communication with law enforcement agencies, including tribal law enforcement agencies in the case of an Indian child, and NCMEC in efforts to provide a safe recovery of the missing or abducted child or youth, including by sharing information pertaining to the child’s or youth’s recovery and circumstances related to the recovery. (k) A law enforcement agency shall immediately, or as soon as practicably possible, report by telephone, fax, or electronic transmission to the agency given responsibility for investigation of cases under Section 300 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and to the district attorney’s office every known or reasonably suspected instance of child abuse or neglect reported to it, except acts or omissions coming within subdivision (b) of Section 11165.2, which shall be reported only to the county welfare or probation department. A law enforcement agency shall report to the county welfare or probation department every known or reasonably suspected instance of child abuse or neglect reported to it that is alleged to have occurred as a result of the action of a person responsible for the child’s welfare, or as the result of the failure of a person responsible for the child’s welfare to adequately protect the minor from abuse when the person responsible for the child’s welfare knew or reasonably should have known that the minor was in danger of abuse. A law enforcement agency also shall send by fax or electronic transmission a written report thereof within 36 hours of receiving the information concerning the incident to any agency to which it makes a telephone report under this subdivision.
Ermittlung und Bekämpfung von Straftaten und Straftätern · Teil 4 · Geldstrafe $1.000
nur im Gesetzestext
Belehrungspflicht des Arbeitgebers über die Meldepflicht
Meldepflichtige müssen vor Aufnahme ihrer Tätigkeit eine vom Arbeitgeber gestellte Erklärung unterschreiben, dass sie die Meldepflicht kennen und beachten werden. Der Arbeitgeber muss ihnen die einschlägigen Vorschriften aushändigen und sie über ihre Melde- und Vertraulichkeitsrechte belehren. Für gerichtlich bestellte Umgangsbegleiter gilt eine entsprechende Erklärung gegenüber dem Gericht vor dem ersten begleiteten Umgang.
Strafe6 Monate Gefängnis· dazu $1.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 11166.5 — Belehrungspflicht des Arbeitgebers über die MeldepflichtWortlautzu
Meldepflichtige müssen vor Aufnahme ihrer Tätigkeit eine vom Arbeitgeber gestellte Erklärung unterschreiben, dass sie die Meldepflicht kennen und beachten werden. Der Arbeitgeber muss ihnen die einschlägigen Vorschriften aushändigen und sie über ihre Melde- und Vertraulichkeitsrechte belehren. Für gerichtlich bestellte Umgangsbegleiter gilt eine entsprechende Erklärung gegenüber dem Gericht vor dem ersten begleiteten Umgang.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Die Erklärung muss den Hinweis enthalten, dass die Verletzung der Meldepflicht ein Vergehen ist, das mit Freiheitsstrafe bis zu sechs Monaten im Bezirksgefängnis oder Geldstrafe von 1.000 Dollar oder beidem geahndet wird.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(b) On and after January 1, 1986, when a person is issued a state license or certificate to engage in a profession or occupation, the members of which are required to make a report pursuant to Section 11166, the state agency issuing the license or certificate shall send a statement substantially similar to the one contained in subdivision (a) to the person at the same time as it transmits the document indicating licensure or certification to the person. In addition to the requirements contained in subdivision (a), the statement also shall indicate that failure to comply with the requirements of Section 11166 is a misdemeanor, punishable by up to six months in a county jail, by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) On and after January 1, 1985, any mandated reporter as specified in Section 11165.7, with the exception of child visitation monitors, prior to commencing his or her employment, and as a prerequisite to that employment, shall sign a statement on a form provided to him or her by his or her employer to the effect that he or she has knowledge of the provisions of Section 11166 and will comply with those provisions. The statement shall inform the employee that he or she is a mandated reporter and inform the employee of his or her reporting obligations under Section 11166 and of his or her confidentiality rights under subdivision (d) of Section 11167. The employer shall provide a copy of Sections 11165.7, 11166, and 11167 to the employee. On and after January 1, 1993, any person who acts as a child visitation monitor, as defined in paragraph (30) of subdivision (a) of Section 11165.7, prior to engaging in monitoring the first visit in a case, shall sign a statement on a form provided to him or her by the court which ordered the presence of that third person during the visit, to the effect that he or she has knowledge of the provisions of Section 11166 and will comply with those provisions. The signed statements shall be retained by the employer or the court, as the case may be. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of these statements shall be borne by the employer or the court. This subdivision is not applicable to persons employed by public or private youth centers, youth recreation programs, and youth organizations as members of the support staff or maintenance staff and who do not work with, observe, or have knowledge of children as part of their official duties. (b) On and after January 1, 1986, when a person is issued a state license or certificate to engage in a profession or occupation, the members of which are required to make a report pursuant to Section 11166, the state agency issuing the license or certificate shall send a statement substantially similar to the one contained in subdivision (a) to the person at the same time as it transmits the document indicating licensure or certification to the person. In addition to the requirements contained in subdivision (a), the statement also shall indicate that failure to comply with the requirements of Section 11166 is a misdemeanor, punishable by up to six months in a county jail, by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. (c) As an alternative to the procedure required by subdivision (b), a state agency may cause the required statement to be printed on all application forms for a license or certificate printed on or after January 1, 1986. (d) On and after January 1, 1993, any child visitation monitor, as defined in paragraph (30) of subdivision (a) of Section 11165.7, who desires to act in that capacity shall have received training in the duties imposed by this article, including training in child abuse identification and child abuse reporting. The person, prior to engaging in monitoring the first visit in a case, shall sign a statement on a form provided to him or her by the court which ordered the presence of that third person during the visit, to the effect that he or she has received this training. This statement may be included in the statement required by subdivision (a) or it may be a separate statement. This statement shall be filed, along with the statement required by subdivision (a), in the court file of the case for which the visitation monitoring is being provided. (e) Any person providing services to a minor child, as described in paragraph (37) of subdivision (a) of Section 11165.7, shall not be required to make a report pursuant to Section 11166 unless that person has received training, or instructional materials in the appropriate language, on the duties imposed by this article, including identifying and reporting child abuse and neglect.
Ermittlung und Bekämpfung von Straftaten und Straftätern · Teil 4 · Geldstrafe $1.000
nur im Gesetzestext
Vertraulichkeit von Meldungen über Kindesmisshandlung
Meldungen über Kindesmisshandlung und Vernachlässigung sowie die daraus folgenden Ermittlungsberichte sind vertraulich. Sie dürfen nur an die im Gesetz abschliessend aufgezählten Stellen weitergegeben werden, etwa an die ermittelnden Behörden, Gerichte, multidisziplinäre Fachteams und bestimmte Lizenzbehörden. Jede Verletzung dieser Vertraulichkeit ist strafbar.
Strafe6 Monate Gefängnis· dazu $500
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 11167.5 — Vertraulichkeit von Meldungen über KindesmisshandlungWortlautzu
Meldungen über Kindesmisshandlung und Vernachlässigung sowie die daraus folgenden Ermittlungsberichte sind vertraulich. Sie dürfen nur an die im Gesetz abschliessend aufgezählten Stellen weitergegeben werden, etwa an die ermittelnden Behörden, Gerichte, multidisziplinäre Fachteams und bestimmte Lizenzbehörden. Jede Verletzung dieser Vertraulichkeit ist strafbar.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Vergehen: Freiheitsstrafe bis zu sechs Monaten im Bezirksgefängnis oder Geldstrafe von 500 Dollar oder beides.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(a) The reports required by Sections 11166 and 11166.2, or authorized by Section 11166.05, and child abuse or neglect investigative reports that result in a summary report being filed with the Department of Justice pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 11169 shall be confidential and may be disclosed only as provided in subdivision (b). Any violation of the confidentiality provided by this article is a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed six months, by a fine of five hundred dollars ($500), or by both that imprisonment and fine.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) The reports required by Sections 11166 and 11166.2, or authorized by Section 11166.05, and child abuse or neglect investigative reports that result in a summary report being filed with the Department of Justice pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 11169 shall be confidential and may be disclosed only as provided in subdivision (b). Any violation of the confidentiality provided by this article is a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed six months, by a fine of five hundred dollars ($500), or by both that imprisonment and fine. (b) Reports of suspected child abuse or neglect and information contained therein may be disclosed only to the following: (1) Persons or agencies to whom disclosure of the identity of the reporting party is permitted under Section 11167. (2) Persons or agencies to whom disclosure of information is permitted under subdivision (b) of Section 11170 or subdivision (a) of Section 11170.5. (3) Persons or agencies with whom investigations of child abuse or neglect are coordinated under the regulations promulgated under Section 11174. (4) Multidisciplinary personnel teams as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 18951 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (5) Persons or agencies responsible for the licensing of facilities which care for children, as specified in Section 11165.7. (6) The State Department of Social Services or any county, as specified in paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 11170, when an individual has applied for a license to operate a community care facility or child daycare facility, or for a certificate of approval to operate a certified family home or resource family home, or for employment or presence in a licensed facility, certified family home, or resource family home, or when a complaint alleges child abuse or neglect by a licensee or employee of, or individual approved to be present in, a licensed facility, certified family home, or resource family home. (7) Hospital scan teams. As used in this paragraph, “hospital scan team” means a team of three or more persons established by a hospital, or two or more hospitals in the same county, consisting of health care professionals and representatives of law enforcement and child protective services, the members of which are engaged in the identification of child abuse or neglect. The disclosure authorized by this section includes disclosure among all hospital scan teams. (8) Coroners and medical examiners when conducting a post mortem examination of a child. (9) The Board of Parole Hearings, which may subpoena an employee of a county welfare department who can provide relevant evidence and reports that both (A) are not unfounded, pursuant to Section 11165.12, and (B) concern only the current incidents upon which parole revocation proceedings are pending against a parolee charged with child abuse or neglect. The reports and information shall be confidential pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 11167. (10) Personnel from an agency responsible for making a placement of a child pursuant to Section 361.3 of, and Article 7 (commencing with Section 305) of Chapter 2 of Part 1 of Division 2 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code. (11) Persons who have been identified by the Department of Justice as listed in the Child Abuse Central Index pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 11170 or subdivision (c) of Section 11170, or persons who have verified with the Department of Justice that they are listed in the Child Abuse Central Index as provided in subdivision (f) of Section 11170. Disclosure under this paragraph is required notwithstanding the California Public Records Act, (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code). Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude a submitting agency prior to disclosure from redacting any information necessary to maintain confidentiality as required by law. (12) Out-of-state law enforcement agencies conducting an investigation of child abuse or neglect only when an agency makes the request for reports of suspected child abuse or neglect in writing and on official letterhead, or as designated by the Department of Justice, identifying the suspected abuser or victim by name and date of birth or approximate age. The request shall be signed by the department supervisor of the requesting law enforcement agency. The written request shall cite the out-of-state statute or interstate compact provision that requires that the information contained within these reports is to be disclosed only to law enforcement, prosecutorial entities, or multidisciplinary investigative teams, and shall cite the safeguards in place to prevent unlawful disclosure provided by the requesting state or the applicable interstate compact provision. (13) Out-of-state agencies responsible for approving prospective foster or adoptive parents for placement of a child only when the agency makes the request in compliance with the Adam Walsh Child Protection and Safety Act of 2006 (Public Law 109-248). The request shall also cite the safeguards in place to prevent unlawful disclosure provided by the requesting state or the applicable interstate compact provision and indicate that the requesting state shall maintain continual compliance with the requirement in paragraph (20) of subdivision (a) of Section 671 of Title 42 of the United States Code that requires the state have in place safeguards to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of information in any child abuse and neglect registry maintained by the state and prevent the information from being used for a purpose other than the conducting of background checks in foster or adoptive placement cases. (14) Each chairperson of a county child death review team, or the chairperson’s designee, to whom disclosure of information is permitted under this article, relating to the death of one or more children and any prior child abuse or neglect investigation reports maintained involving the same victim, siblings, or suspects. Local child death review teams may share any relevant information regarding case reviews involving child death with other child death review teams. (c) Authorized persons within county health departments shall be permitted to receive copies of any reports made by health practitioners, as defined in paragraphs (21) to (28), inclusive, of subdivision (a) of Section 11165.7, and pursuant to Section 11165.13, and copies of assessments completed pursuant to Sections 123600 and 123605 of the Health and Safety Code, to the extent permitted by federal law. Any information received pursuant to this subdivision is protected by subdivision (e). (d) Nothing in this section requires the Department of Justice to disclose information contained in records maintained under Section 11170 or under the regulations promulgated pursuant to Section 11174, except as otherwise provided in this article. (e) This section shall not be interpreted to allow disclosure of any reports or records relevant to the reports of child abuse or neglect if the disclosure would be prohibited by any other provisions of state or federal law applicable to the reports or records relevant to the reports of child abuse or neglect.
Ermittlung und Bekämpfung von Straftaten und Straftätern · Teil 4 · Geldstrafe $500
nur im Gesetzestext
Strafschärfung für Bewaffnung bei einem Verbrechen
Wer bei einem Verbrechen oder dessen Versuch eine Schusswaffe bei sich führt, erhält eine Zusatzstrafe von einem Jahr, sofern die Bewaffnung nicht schon Merkmal der Tat ist. Sie trifft auch Mittäter, wenn einer von ihnen bewaffnet ist, selbst wenn der Betroffene selbst keine Waffe trägt. Höhere Zusatzstrafen gelten für Sturmgewehre und Maschinengewehre. Wer persönlich eine gefährliche Waffe einsetzt, erhält ebenfalls ein Jahr zusätzlich.
Zuschlag, keine eigene Tat. Der Wert kommt voll auf die Strafe einer anderen Tat obendrauf — die Tat gehört also mit in den Fall, sonst gibt es nichts, worauf er kommt.
ZuschlagFall 1:normalerweise 2 Jahre Gefängnis· + 1 weiterer Fall
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Die 2 Strafrahmen im Gesetz
Fall 11·2·3 JahreWarum drei Zahlen??weniger
Das Gericht nimmt eine dieser drei Zahlen. Dazwischen gibt es nichts — „1 · 2 · 3 Jahre“ heisst nicht „von … bis“.
- Die mittlere ist der Normalfall. Sie gilt, solange nichts dagegenspricht.
- Die obere nur, wenn es besonders schlimm war — und das muss bewiesen sein. „Wahrscheinlich“ reicht nicht.
- Die untere, wenn etwas dafür spricht: erlittenes Trauma, Jugend zur Tatzeit, Gewalt in der Partnerschaft.
Im Gesetz: „one, two, or three years“
Fall 23·4·5 Jahreweniger
Das Gericht nimmt eine dieser drei Zahlen. Dazwischen gibt es nichts — „3 · 4 · 5 Jahre“ heisst nicht „von … bis“.
- Die mittlere ist der Normalfall. Sie gilt, solange nichts dagegenspricht.
- Die obere nur, wenn es besonders schlimm war — und das muss bewiesen sein. „Wahrscheinlich“ reicht nicht.
- Die untere, wenn etwas dafür spricht: erlittenes Trauma, Jugend zur Tatzeit, Gewalt in der Partnerschaft.
Im Gesetz: „three, four, or five years“
Cal. Penal Code § 12022 — Strafschärfung für Bewaffnung bei einem VerbrechenWortlautzu
Wer bei einem Verbrechen oder dessen Versuch eine Schusswaffe bei sich führt, erhält eine Zusatzstrafe von einem Jahr, sofern die Bewaffnung nicht schon Merkmal der Tat ist. Sie trifft auch Mittäter, wenn einer von ihnen bewaffnet ist, selbst wenn der Betroffene selbst keine Waffe trägt. Höhere Zusatzstrafen gelten für Sturmgewehre und Maschinengewehre. Wer persönlich eine gefährliche Waffe einsetzt, erhält ebenfalls ein Jahr zusätzlich.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Zusätzliche und anschliessend zu verbüssende Freiheitsstrafe nach Section 1170 Buchstabe h von einem Jahr für die Bewaffnung mit einer Schusswaffe; höhere Zusatzstrafen bei Sturmgewehren und Maschinengewehren. Für den persönlichen Einsatz einer gefährlichen Waffe zusätzlich ein Jahr Freiheitsstrafe im Staatsgefängnis.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(a) (1) Except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d), a person who is armed with a firearm in the commission of a felony or attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for one year, unless the arming is an element of that offense. This additional term shall apply to a person who is a principal in the commission of a felony or attempted felony if one or more of the principals is armed with a firearm, whether or not the person is personally armed with a firearm.
(b) (1) A person who personally uses a deadly or dangerous weapon in the commission of a felony or attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for one year, unless use of a deadly or dangerous weapon is an element of that offense.
(2) If the person described in paragraph (1) has been convicted of carjacking or attempted carjacking, the additional term shall be in the state prison for one, two, or three years.
(c) (1) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision (a), a person who is personally armed with a firearm in the commission of a violation or attempted violation of Section 11351, 11351.5, 11352, 11366.5, 11366.6, 11378, 11378.5, 11379, 11379.5, or 11379.6 of the Health and Safety Code shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for three, four, or five years.
(d) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision (a), a person who is not personally armed with a firearm who, knowing that another principal is personally armed with a firearm, is a principal in the commission of an offense or attempted offense specified in subdivision (c), shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for one, two, or three years.
1 , 2 , or 3 years
3 , 4 , or 5 years
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) Except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d), a person who is armed with a firearm in the commission of a felony or attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for one year, unless the arming is an element of that offense. This additional term shall apply to a person who is a principal in the commission of a felony or attempted felony if one or more of the principals is armed with a firearm, whether or not the person is personally armed with a firearm. (2) Except as provided in subdivision (c), and notwithstanding subdivision (d), if the firearm is an assault weapon, as defined in Section 30510 or 30515, or a machinegun, as defined in Section 16880, or a .50 BMG rifle, as defined in Section 30530, the additional and consecutive term described in this subdivision shall be three years imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 whether or not the arming is an element of the offense of which the person was convicted. The additional term provided in this paragraph shall apply to any person who is a principal in the commission of a felony or attempted felony if one or more of the principals is armed with an assault weapon, machinegun, or a .50 BMG rifle, whether or not the person is personally armed with an assault weapon, machinegun, or a .50 BMG rifle. (b) (1) A person who personally uses a deadly or dangerous weapon in the commission of a felony or attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for one year, unless use of a deadly or dangerous weapon is an element of that offense. (2) If the person described in paragraph (1) has been convicted of carjacking or attempted carjacking, the additional term shall be in the state prison for one, two, or three years. (3) When a person is found to have personally used a deadly or dangerous weapon in the commission of a felony or attempted felony as provided in this subdivision and the weapon is owned by that person, the court shall order that the weapon be deemed a nuisance and disposed of in the manner provided in Sections 18000 and 18005. (c) (1) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision (a), a person who is personally armed with a firearm in the commission of a violation or attempted violation of Section 11351, 11351.5, 11352, 11366.5, 11366.6, 11378, 11378.5, 11379, 11379.5, or 11379.6 of the Health and Safety Code shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for three, four, or five years. (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (9) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code, a defendant convicted of an underlying violation specified in this subdivision who admits an enhancement pursuant to this subdivision or for whom an enhancement pursuant to this subdivision is found true, is punishable by imprisonment in the state prison and not pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code. (d) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision (a), a person who is not personally armed with a firearm who, knowing that another principal is personally armed with a firearm, is a principal in the commission of an offense or attempted offense specified in subdivision (c), shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for one, two, or three years. (e) For purposes of imposing an enhancement under Section 1170.1, the enhancements under this section shall count as a single enhancement. (f) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court may strike the additional punishment for the enhancements provided in subdivision (c) or (d) in an unusual case where the interests of justice would best be served, if the court specifies on the record and enters into the minutes the circumstances indicating that the interests of justice would best be served by that disposition.
- Strafschärfung — der Wert ist ein Zusatzterm, keine Grundstrafe
- dreiwertiger-strafrahmen
- mehrere-strafrahmen
Strafschärfungen · Teil 4
2Dein Fall
noch leer
Noch nichts ausgewählt. Suchen Sie oben nach der Tat und tippen Sie „Hinzufügen“ — jede Tat einzeln, so oft, wie sie vorkam.
3Diese Paragraphen gelten
Sobald die erste Tat oben im Fall liegt, stehen hier die Paragraphen, die dafür gelten — jeder mit Fundstelle zum Kopieren.
Orientierung, keine verbindliche Auskunft — das letzte Wort hat das Gericht. Katalog: leginfo.legislature.ca.gov — California Penal Code, Stand 2026-08-30, 1419 Paragraphen. Verbindlich ist der englische Wortlaut; die deutsche Fassung ist eine Arbeitsübersetzung und steht an jedem Paragraphen zum Aufklappen daneben — für 5 Paragraphen liegt sie noch nicht vor.
