Department of Justice
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362 Taten gefunden · Seite 27 von 31
nur im Gesetzestext
Ladendiebstahl und Diebstahl von Bibliotheksgut
Bei der ersten Verurteilung wegen geringfügigen Diebstahls von Ware aus einem Geschäft oder von Büchern und anderen Materialien aus einer Bibliothek ist eine Geldstrafe zwingend. Wird die Tat von einem nicht emanzipierten Minderjährigen begangen, kann das geschädigte Geschäft oder die Bibliothek zivilrechtlich gegen die Eltern oder Sorgeberechtigten vorgehen. Die Vorschrift regelt außerdem die Befugnis von Ladenpersonal und Bibliotheksbediensteten, Verdächtige anzuhalten.
Strafebis zu 6 Monate Gefängnis· dazu $50 – $1.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 490.5 — Ladendiebstahl und Diebstahl von BibliotheksgutWortlautzu
Bei der ersten Verurteilung wegen geringfügigen Diebstahls von Ware aus einem Geschäft oder von Büchern und anderen Materialien aus einer Bibliothek ist eine Geldstrafe zwingend. Wird die Tat von einem nicht emanzipierten Minderjährigen begangen, kann das geschädigte Geschäft oder die Bibliothek zivilrechtlich gegen die Eltern oder Sorgeberechtigten vorgehen. Die Vorschrift regelt außerdem die Befugnis von Ladenpersonal und Bibliotheksbediensteten, Verdächtige anzuhalten.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Zwingende Geldstrafe von mindestens 50 und höchstens 1.000 US-Dollar für jeden Verstoß; zusätzlich möglich ist eine Freiheitsstrafe im Bezirksgefängnis bis zu sechs Monaten oder Geld- und Freiheitsstrafe zusammen.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(a) Upon a first conviction for petty theft involving merchandise taken from a merchant’s premises or a book or other library materials taken from a library facility, a person shall be punished by a mandatory fine of not less than fifty dollars ($50) and not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each such violation; and may also be punished by imprisonment in the county jail, not exceeding six months, or both such fine and imprisonment.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) Upon a first conviction for petty theft involving merchandise taken from a merchant’s premises or a book or other library materials taken from a library facility, a person shall be punished by a mandatory fine of not less than fifty dollars ($50) and not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each such violation; and may also be punished by imprisonment in the county jail, not exceeding six months, or both such fine and imprisonment. (b) When an unemancipated minor’s willful conduct would constitute petty theft involving merchandise taken from a merchant’s premises or a book or other library materials taken from a library facility, any merchant or library facility who has been injured by that conduct may bring a civil action against the parent or legal guardian having control and custody of the minor. For the purposes of those actions the misconduct of the unemancipated minor shall be imputed to the parent or legal guardian having control and custody of the minor. The parent or legal guardian having control or custody of an unemancipated minor whose conduct violates this subdivision shall be jointly and severally liable with the minor to a merchant or to a library facility for damages of not less than fifty dollars ($50) nor more than five hundred dollars ($500), plus costs. In addition to the foregoing damages, the parent or legal guardian shall be jointly and severally liable with the minor to the merchant for the retail value of the merchandise if it is not recovered in a merchantable condition, or to a library facility for the fair market value of its book or other library materials. Recovery of these damages may be had in addition to, and is not limited by, any other provision of law which limits the liability of a parent or legal guardian for the tortious conduct of a minor. An action for recovery of damages, pursuant to this subdivision, may be brought in small claims court if the total damages do not exceed the jurisdictional limit of that court, or in any other appropriate court; however, total damages, including the value of the merchandise or book or other library materials, shall not exceed five hundred dollars ($500) for each action brought under this section. The provisions of this subdivision are in addition to other civil remedies and do not limit merchants or other persons to elect to pursue other civil remedies, except that the provisions of Section 1714.1 of the Civil Code shall not apply herein. (c) When an adult or emancipated minor has unlawfully taken merchandise from a merchant’s premises, or a book or other library materials from a library facility, the adult or emancipated minor shall be liable to the merchant or library facility for damages of not less than fifty dollars ($50) nor more than five hundred dollars ($500), plus costs. In addition to the foregoing damages, the adult or emancipated minor shall be liable to the merchant for the retail value of the merchandise if it is not recovered in merchantable condition, or to a library facility for the fair market value of its book or other library materials. An action for recovery of damages, pursuant to this subdivision, may be brought in small claims court if the total damages do not exceed the jurisdictional limit of such court, or in any other appropriate court. The provisions of this subdivision are in addition to other civil remedies and do not limit merchants or other persons to elect to pursue other civil remedies. (d) In lieu of the fines prescribed by subdivision (a), any person may be required to perform public services designated by the court, provided that in no event shall any such person be required to perform less than the number of hours of such public service necessary to satisfy the fine assessed by the court as provided by subdivision (a) at the minimum wage prevailing in the state at the time of sentencing. (e) All fines collected under this section shall be collected and distributed in accordance with Sections 1463 and 1463.1 of the Penal Code; provided, however, that a county may, by a majority vote of the members of its board of supervisors, allocate any amount up to, but not exceeding 50 percent of such fines to the county superintendent of schools for allocation to local school districts. The fines allocated shall be administered by the county superintendent of schools to finance public school programs, which provide counseling or other educational services designed to discourage shoplifting, theft, and burglary. Subject to rules and regulations as may be adopted by the Superintendent of Public Instruction, each county superintendent of schools shall allocate such funds to school districts within the county which submit project applications designed to further the educational purposes of this section. The costs of administration of this section by each county superintendent of schools shall be paid from the funds allocated to the county superintendent of schools. (f) (1) A merchant may detain a person for a reasonable time for the purpose of conducting an investigation in a reasonable manner whenever the merchant has probable cause to believe the person to be detained is attempting to unlawfully take or has unlawfully taken merchandise from the merchant’s premises. A theater owner may detain a person for a reasonable time for the purpose of conducting an investigation in a reasonable manner whenever the theater owner has probable cause to believe the person to be detained is attempting to operate a video recording device within the premises of a motion picture theater without the authority of the owner of the theater. A person employed by a library facility may detain a person for a reasonable time for the purpose of conducting an investigation in a reasonable manner whenever the person employed by a library facility has probable cause to believe the person to be detained is attempting to unlawfully remove or has unlawfully removed books or library materials from the premises of the library facility. (2) In making the detention a merchant, theater owner, or a person employed by a library facility may use a reasonable amount of nondeadly force necessary to protect himself or herself and to prevent escape of the person detained or the loss of tangible or intangible property. (3) During the period of detention any items which a merchant or theater owner, or any items which a person employed by a library facility has probable cause to believe are unlawfully taken from the premises of the merchant or library facility, or recorded on theater premises, and which are in plain view may be examined by the merchant, theater owner, or person employed by a library facility for the purposes of ascertaining the ownership thereof. (4) A merchant, theater owner, a person employed by a library facility, or an agent thereof, having probable cause to believe the person detained was attempting to unlawfully take or has taken any item from the premises, or was attempting to operate a video recording device within the premises of a motion picture theater without the authority of the owner of the theater, may request the person detained to voluntarily surrender the item or recording. Should the person detained refuse to surrender the recording or item of which there is probable cause to believe has been recorded on or unlawfully taken from the premises, or attempted to be recorded or unlawfully taken from the premises, a limited and reasonable search may be conducted by those authorized to make the detention in order to recover the item. Only packages, shopping bags, handbags or other property in the immediate possession of the person detained, but not including any clothing worn by the person, may be searched pursuant to this subdivision. Upon surrender or discovery of the item, the person detained may also be requested, but may not be required, to provide adequate proof of his or her true identity. (5) If any person admitted to a theater in which a motion picture is to be or is being exhibited, refuses or fails to give or surrender possession or to cease operation of any video recording device that the person has brought into or attempts to bring into that theater, then a theater owner shall have the right to refuse admission to that person or request that the person leave the premises and shall thereupon offer to refund and, unless that offer is refused, refund to that person the price paid by that person for admission to that theater. If the person thereafter refuses to leave the theater or cease operation of the video recording device, then the person shall be deemed to be intentionally interfering with and obstructing those attempting to carry on a lawful business within the meaning of Section 602.1. (6) A peace officer who accepts custody of a person arrested for an offense contained in this section may, subsequent to the arrest, search the person arrested and his or her immediate possessions for any item or items alleged to have been taken. (7) In any civil action brought by any person resulting from a detention or arrest by a merchant, it shall be a defense to such action that the merchant detaining or arresting such person had probable cause to believe that the person had stolen or attempted to steal merchandise and that the merchant acted reasonably under all the circumstances. In any civil action brought by any person resulting from a detention or arrest by a theater owner or person employed by a library facility, it shall be a defense to that action that the theater owner or person employed by a library facility detaining or arresting that person had probable cause to believe that the person was attempting to operate a video recording device within the premises of a motion picture theater without the authority of the owner of the theater or had stolen or attempted to steal books or library materials and that the person employed by a library facility acted reasonably under all the circumstances. (g) As used in this section: (1) “Merchandise” means any personal property, capable of manual delivery, displayed, held or offered for retail sale by a merchant. (2) “Merchant” means an owner or operator, and the agent, consignee, employee, lessee, or officer of an owner or operator, of any premises used for the retail purchase or sale of any personal property capable of manual delivery. (3) “Theater owner” means an owner or operator, and the agent, employee, consignee, lessee, or officer of an owner or operator, of any premises used for the exhibition or performance of motion pictures to the general public. (4) The terms “book or other library materials” include any book, plate, picture, photograph, engraving, painting, drawing, map, newspaper, magazine, pamphlet, broadside, manuscript, document, letter, public record, microform, sound recording, audiovisual material in any format, magnetic or other tape, electronic data-processing record, artifact, or other documentary, written or printed material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or any part thereof, belonging to, on loan to, or otherwise in the custody of a library facility. (5) The term “library facility” includes any public library; any library of an educational, historical or eleemosynary institution, organization or society; any museum; any repository of public records. (h) Any library facility shall post at its entrance and exit a conspicuous sign to read as follows: “IN ORDER TO PREVENT THE THEFT OF BOOKS AND LIBRARY MATERIALS, STATE LAW AUTHORIZES THE DETENTION FOR A REASONABLE PERIOD OF ANY PERSON USING THESE FACILITIES SUSPECTED OF COMMITTING “LIBRARY THEFT” (PENAL CODE SECTION 490.5).”
Straftaten gegen das Vermögen · Teil 1 · Geldstrafe $50 – $1.000
nur im Gesetzestext
Hausfriedensbruch
Wer vorsätzlich fremdes Grundeigentum unbefugt betritt oder nutzt, macht sich strafbar. Die Vorschrift zählt zahlreiche Fälle auf, etwa das Fällen, Beschädigen oder Wegschaffen von Holz auf fremdem Grund, das böswillige Abtrennen von Grundstücksbestandteilen, das Ausheben und Wegschaffen von Erde, Boden oder Steinen ohne Erlaubnis sowie das Betreten von Flughäfen, Schiffsterminals und Nahverkehrsanlagen entgegen den Zutrittsregeln.
Strafebis zu 1 Jahr Gefängnis· dazu bis $2.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 602 — HausfriedensbruchWortlautzu
Wer vorsätzlich fremdes Grundeigentum unbefugt betritt oder nutzt, macht sich strafbar. Die Vorschrift zählt zahlreiche Fälle auf, etwa das Fällen, Beschädigen oder Wegschaffen von Holz auf fremdem Grund, das böswillige Abtrennen von Grundstücksbestandteilen, das Ausheben und Wegschaffen von Erde, Boden oder Steinen ohne Erlaubnis sowie das Betreten von Flughäfen, Schiffsterminals und Nahverkehrsanlagen entgegen den Zutrittsregeln.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Als Vergehen (misdemeanor) strafbar. Wer sich weigert, einen Flughafen oder ein Schiffsterminal auf Aufforderung eines Polizeibeamten oder befugten Personals zu verlassen, sowie bei Wiederholung: Freiheitsstrafe im Bezirksgefängnis bis zu sechs Monaten oder Geldstrafe bis zu 1.000 Dollar oder beides.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
guilty of a misdemeanor
(B) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding six months, or by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, if the person refuses to leave the airport or passenger vessel terminal after being requested to leave by a peace officer or authorized personnel.
(C) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding six months, or by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, for a second or subsequent offense.
(v) (1) Except as permitted by federal law, intentionally avoiding submission to the screening and inspection of one’s person and accessible property in accordance with the procedures being applied to control access when entering or reentering a sterile area of an airport, passenger vessel terminal, as defined in subdivision (u), or public transit facility, as defined in Section 171.7, if the sterile area is posted with a statement providing reasonable notice that prosecution may result from a trespass described in this subdivision, is a violation of this subdivision, punishable by a fine of not more than five hundred dollars ($500) for the first offense. A second and subsequent violation is a misdemeanor, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than one year, or by a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), if a first violation of this subdivision is responsible for the evacuation of an airport terminal, passenger vessel terminal, or public transit facility and is responsible in any part for delays or cancellations of scheduled flights or departures, it is punishable by imprisonment of not more than one year in a county jail.
(1) A person who is convicted of violating this subdivision shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year.
(B) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, if the person refuses to leave the posted area after being requested to leave by a peace officer or other authorized person.
(C) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, for a second or subsequent offense.
(A) By a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars ($100).
(A) As an infraction, by a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars ($100).
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
Except as provided in subdivisions (u), (v), and (x), and Section 602.8, a person who willfully commits a trespass by any of the following acts is guilty of a misdemeanor: (a) Cutting down, destroying, or injuring any kind of wood or timber standing or growing upon the lands of another. (b) Carrying away any kind of wood or timber lying on those lands. (c) Maliciously injuring or severing from the freehold of another anything attached to it, or its produce. (d) Digging, taking, or carrying away from a lot situated within the limits of an incorporated city, without the license of the owner or legal occupant, any earth, soil, or stone. (e) Digging, taking, or carrying away from land in a city or town laid down on the map or plan of the city, or otherwise recognized or established as a street, alley, avenue, or park, without the license of the proper authorities, any earth, soil, or stone. (f) Maliciously tearing down, damaging, mutilating, or destroying a sign, signboard, or notice placed upon, or affixed to, a property belonging to the state, or to a city, county, city and county, town, or village, or upon the property of a person, by the state or by an automobile association, which sign, signboard, or notice is intended to indicate or designate a road or a highway, or is intended to direct travelers from one point to another, or relates to fires, fire control, or any other matter involving the protection of the property, or putting up, affixing, fastening, printing, or painting upon any property belonging to the state, or to any city, county, town, or village, or dedicated to the public, or upon the property of a person, without license from the owner, a notice, advertisement, or designation of, or a name for a commodity, whether for sale or otherwise, or a picture, sign, or device intended to call attention to it. (g) Entering upon lands owned by another person whereon oysters or other shellfish are planted or growing; or injuring, gathering, or carrying away oysters or other shellfish planted, growing, or on any of those lands, whether covered by water or not, without the license of the owner or legal occupant; or damaging, destroying, or removing, or causing to be removed, damaged, or destroyed, any stakes, marks, fences, or signs intended to designate the boundaries and limits of those lands. (h) (1) Entering upon lands or buildings owned by another person without the license of the owner or legal occupant, where signs forbidding trespass are displayed, and whereon cattle, goats, pigs, sheep, fowl, or any other animal is being raised, bred, fed, or held for the purpose of food for human consumption; or injuring, gathering, or carrying away any animal being housed on any of those lands, without the license of the owner or legal occupant; or damaging, destroying, or removing, or causing to be removed, damaged, or destroyed, any stakes, marks, fences, or signs intended to designate the boundaries and limits of those lands. (2) In order for there to be a violation of this subdivision, the trespass signs under paragraph (1) shall be displayed at intervals not less than three per mile along all exterior boundaries and at all roads and trails entering the land. (3) This subdivision does not preclude prosecution or punishment under any other law, including, but not limited to, grand theft or any provision that provides for a greater penalty or longer term of imprisonment. (i) Willfully opening, tearing down, or otherwise destroying a fence on the enclosed land of another, or opening a gate, bar, or fence of another and willfully leaving it open without the written permission of the owner, or maliciously tearing down, mutilating, or destroying a sign, signboard, or other notice forbidding shooting on private property. (j) Building fires upon lands owned by another where signs forbidding trespass are displayed at intervals not greater than one mile along the exterior boundaries and at all roads and trails entering the lands, without first having obtained written permission from the owner of the lands or the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession. (k) Entering lands, whether unenclosed or enclosed by fence, for the purpose of injuring property or property rights or with the intention of interfering with, obstructing, or injuring a lawful business or occupation carried on by the owner of the land, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession. (l) Entering lands under cultivation or enclosed by fence, belonging to, or occupied by, another, or entering upon uncultivated or unenclosed lands where signs forbidding trespass are displayed at intervals not less than three to the mile along all exterior boundaries and at all roads and trails entering the lands without the written permission of the owner of the land, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession, and any of the following: (1) Refusing or failing to leave the lands immediately upon being requested by the owner of the land, the owner’s agent, or by the person in lawful possession to leave the lands. (2) Tearing down, mutilating, or destroying a sign, signboard, or notice forbidding trespass or hunting on the lands. (3) Removing, injuring, unlocking, or tampering with a lock on a gate on or leading into the lands. (4) Discharging a firearm. (m) Entering and occupying real property or structures of any kind without the consent of the owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession. (n) Driving a vehicle, as defined in Section 670 of the Vehicle Code, upon real property belonging to, or lawfully occupied by, another and known not to be open to the general public, without the consent of the owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession. This subdivision does not apply to a person described in Section 22350 of the Business and Professions Code who is making a lawful service of process, provided that upon exiting the vehicle, the person proceeds immediately to attempt the service of process, and leaves immediately upon completing the service of process or upon the request of the owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession. (o) (1) Refusing or failing to leave land, real property, or structures belonging to, or lawfully occupied by, another and not open to the general public, upon being requested to leave by (1) a peace officer at the request of the owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession, and upon being informed by the peace officer that they are acting at the request of the owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession, or (2) the owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession. The owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession shall make a separate request to the peace officer on each occasion when the peace officer’s assistance in dealing with a trespass is requested. However, a single request for a peace officer’s assistance, made in a notarized writing on a form provided by the law enforcement agency, may be made to cover a limited period of time not to exceed a time period determined by local ordinance or 12 months, whichever is shorter, and identified by specific dates, during which there is a fire hazard or the owner, owner’s agent, or person in lawful possession is absent from the premises or property. In addition, a single request for a peace officer’s assistance, made in a notarized writing on a form provided by the law enforcement agency, may be made for a period not to exceed 12 months when the premises or property is closed to the public and posted as being closed. The requestor shall inform the law enforcement agency to which the request was made, in writing, when the assistance is no longer desired, before the period not exceeding 12 months expires. However, this subdivision does not apply to persons engaged in lawful labor union activities that are permitted to be carried out on the property by the Alatorre-Zenovich-Dunlap-Berman Agricultural Labor Relations Act of 1975 (Part 3.5 (commencing with Section 1140) of Division 2 of the Labor Code) or by the federal National Labor Relations Act. For purposes of this section, land, real property, or structures owned or operated by a housing authority for tenants, as defined in Section 34213.5 of the Health and Safety Code, constitutes property not open to the general public; however, this subdivision does not apply to persons on the premises who are engaging in activities protected by the California or United States Constitution, or to persons who are on the premises at the request of a resident or management and who are not loitering or otherwise suspected of violating or actually violating a law or ordinance. (2) A request for a peace officer’s assistance shall expire upon transfer of ownership of the property or upon a change in the person in lawful possession. (3) A request for a peace officer’s assistance in dealing with a trespass may be submitted electronically. A local government may accept electronic submissions of requests pursuant to this subdivision. (p) Entering upon lands declared closed to entry, as provided in Section 4256 of the Public Resources Code, if the closed areas have been posted with notices declaring the closure, at intervals not greater than one mile along the exterior boundaries or along roads and trails passing through the lands. (q) Refusing or failing to leave a public building of a public agency during those hours of the day or night when the building is regularly closed to the public upon being requested to do so by a regularly employed guard, watchperson, or custodian of the public agency owning or maintaining the building or property, if the surrounding circumstances would indicate to a reasonable person that the person has no apparent lawful business to pursue. (r) Knowingly skiing in an area or on a ski trail that is closed to the public and that has signs posted indicating the closure. (s) Refusing or failing to leave a hotel or motel, where the person has obtained accommodations and has refused to pay for those accommodations, upon request of the proprietor or manager and the occupancy is exempt, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1940 of the Civil Code, from Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1940) of Title 5 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code. For purposes of this subdivision, occupancy at a hotel or motel for a continuous period of 30 days or less shall, in the absence of a written agreement to the contrary, or other written evidence of a periodic tenancy of indefinite duration, be exempt from Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1940) of Title 5 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code. (t) (1) Entering upon private property, including contiguous land, real property, or structures thereon belonging to the same owner, whether or not generally open to the public, after having been informed by a peace officer at the request of the owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession, and upon being informed by the peace officer that the peace officer is acting at the request of the owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession, that the property is not open to the particular person; or refusing or failing to leave the property upon being asked to leave the property in the manner provided in this subdivision. (2) This subdivision applies only to a person who has been convicted of a crime committed upon the particular private property. (3) A single notification or request to the person as set forth above shall be valid and enforceable under this subdivision unless and until rescinded by the owner, the owner’s agent, or the person in lawful possession of the property. (4) Where the person has been convicted of a violent felony, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, this subdivision applies without time limitation. Where the person has been convicted of any other felony, this subdivision applies for no more than five years from the date of conviction. Where the person has been convicted of a misdemeanor, this subdivision applies for no more than two years from the date of conviction. Where the person was convicted for an infraction pursuant to Section 490.1, this subdivision applies for no more than one year from the date of conviction. This subdivision does not apply to convictions for any other infraction. (u) (1) Knowingly entering, by an unauthorized person, upon an airport operations area, passenger vessel terminal, or public transit facility if the area has been posted with notices restricting access to authorized personnel only and the postings occur not greater than every 150 feet along the exterior boundary, to the extent, in the case of a passenger vessel terminal, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3), that the exterior boundary extends shoreside. To the extent that the exterior boundary of a passenger vessel terminal operations area extends waterside, this prohibition applies if notices have been posted in a manner consistent with the requirements for the shoreside exterior boundary, or in any other manner approved by the captain of the port. (2) A person convicted of a violation of paragraph (1) shall be punished as follows: (A) By a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars ($100). (B) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding six months, or by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, if the person refuses to leave the airport or passenger vessel terminal after being requested to leave by a peace officer or authorized personnel. (C) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding six months, or by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, for a second or subsequent offense. (3) As used in this subdivision, the following definitions shall control: (A) “Airport operations area” means that part of the airport used by aircraft for landing, taking off, surface maneuvering, loading and unloading, refueling, parking, or maintenance, where aircraft support vehicles and facilities exist, and which is not for public use or public vehicular traffic. (B) “Passenger vessel terminal” means only that portion of a harbor or port facility, as described in Section 105.105(a)(2) of Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations, with a secured area that regularly serves scheduled commuter or passenger operations. For the purposes of this section, “passenger vessel terminal” does not include any area designated a public access area pursuant to Section 105.106 of Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations. (C) “Public transit facility” has the same meaning as specified in Section 171.7. (D) (i) “Authorized personnel” means a person who has a valid airport identification card issued by the airport operator or has a valid airline identification card recognized by the airport operator, or any person not in possession of an airport or airline identification card who is being escorted for legitimate purposes by a person with an airport or airline identification card. (ii) “Authorized personnel” also means a person who has a valid port identification card issued by the harbor operator, or who has a valid company identification card issued by a commercial maritime enterprise recognized by the harbor operator, or any other person who is being escorted for legitimate purposes by a person with a valid port or qualifying company identification card. (iii) “Authorized personnel” also means a person who has a valid public transit employee identification card. (E) “Airport” means a facility whose function is to support commercial aviation. (v) (1) Except as permitted by federal law, intentionally avoiding submission to the screening and inspection of one’s person and accessible property in accordance with the procedures being applied to control access when entering or reentering a sterile area of an airport, passenger vessel terminal, as defined in subdivision (u), or public transit facility, as defined in Section 171.7, if the sterile area is posted with a statement providing reasonable notice that prosecution may result from a trespass described in this subdivision, is a violation of this subdivision, punishable by a fine of not more than five hundred dollars ($500) for the first offense. A second and subsequent violation is a misdemeanor, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than one year, or by a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), if a first violation of this subdivision is responsible for the evacuation of an airport terminal, passenger vessel terminal, or public transit facility and is responsible in any part for delays or cancellations of scheduled flights or departures, it is punishable by imprisonment of not more than one year in a county jail. (w) Refusing or failing to leave the location of a domestic violence shelter-based program at any time after being requested to leave by a managing authority of the shelter. (1) A person who is convicted of violating this subdivision shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year. (2) The court may order a defendant who is convicted of violating this subdivision to make restitution to a victim of domestic violence in an amount equal to the relocation expenses of the victim of domestic violence and the victim’s children if those expenses are incurred as a result of trespass by the defendant at the location of a domestic violence shelter-based program. (x) (1) Knowingly entering or remaining in a neonatal unit, maternity ward, or birthing center located in a hospital or clinic without lawful business to pursue therein, if the area has been posted so as to give reasonable notice restricting access to those with lawful business to pursue therein and the surrounding circumstances would indicate to a reasonable person that the person has no lawful business to pursue therein. Reasonable notice is that which would give actual notice to a reasonable person, and is posted, at a minimum, at each entrance into the area. (2) A person convicted of a violation of paragraph (1) shall be punished as follows: (A) As an infraction, by a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars ($100). (B) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, if the person refuses to leave the posted area after being requested to leave by a peace officer or other authorized person. (C) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment, for a second or subsequent offense. (D) If probation is granted or the execution or imposition of sentencing is suspended for a person convicted under this subdivision, it shall be a condition of probation that the person participate in counseling, as designated by the court, unless the court finds good cause not to impose this requirement. The court shall require the person to pay for this counseling, if ordered, unless good cause not to pay is shown. (y) Except as permitted by federal law, intentionally avoiding submission to the screening and inspection of one’s person and accessible property in accordance with the procedures being applied to control access when entering or reentering a courthouse or a city, county, city and county, or state building if entrances to the courthouse or the city, county, city and county, or state building have been posted with a statement providing reasonable notice that prosecution may result from a trespass described in this subdivision.
: Schadenswiedergutmachung · Bewährung
Sachbeschädigung und mutwillige Schädigung · Teil 1 · Geldstrafe bis $2.000
nur im Gesetzestext
Verbreitung heimlich aufgezeichneter Arztgespräche
Wer ein vertrauliches Gespräch mit einer Person aus dem Gesundheitswesen rechtswidrig aufzeichnet und den Inhalt anschließend absichtlich weitergibt oder verbreitet, wird schärfer bestraft. Erfasst ist jede Form der Verbreitung, ausdrücklich auch über Internetseiten und soziale Medien. Beihilfe ist nur strafbar, wenn sie sich sowohl auf die Aufzeichnung als auch auf die Verbreitung bezieht.
Strafebis zu 1 Jahr Gefängnis· dazu bis $10.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 632.01 — Verbreitung heimlich aufgezeichneter ArztgesprächeWortlautzu
Wer ein vertrauliches Gespräch mit einer Person aus dem Gesundheitswesen rechtswidrig aufzeichnet und den Inhalt anschließend absichtlich weitergibt oder verbreitet, wird schärfer bestraft. Erfasst ist jede Form der Verbreitung, ausdrücklich auch über Internetseiten und soziale Medien. Beihilfe ist nur strafbar, wenn sie sich sowohl auf die Aufzeichnung als auch auf die Verbreitung bezieht.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Geldstrafe bis zu 2.500 US-Dollar je Verstoß oder Freiheitsstrafe im Bezirksgefängnis bis zu einem Jahr oder im Staatsgefängnis oder Geld- und Freiheitsstrafe zusammen. Bei einer früheren Verurteilung nach dieser Vorschrift: Geldstrafe bis zu 10.000 US-Dollar je Verstoß, Freiheitsstrafe im Bezirksgefängnis bis zu einem Jahr oder im Staatsgefängnis oder beides.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(b) A violation of subdivision (a) shall be punished by a fine not exceeding two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) per violation, or imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or in the state prison, or by both that fine and imprisonment. If the person has previously been convicted of a violation of this section, the person shall be punished by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per violation, by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or in the state prison, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) A person who violates subdivision (a) of Section 632 shall be punished pursuant to subdivision (b) if the person intentionally discloses or distributes, in any manner, in any forum, including, but not limited to, Internet Web sites and social media, or for any purpose, the contents of a confidential communication with a health care provider that is obtained by that person in violation of subdivision (a) of Section 632. For purposes of this subdivision, “social media” means an electronic service or account, or electronic content, including, but not limited to, videos or still photographs, blogs, video blogs, podcasts, instant and text messages, email, online services or accounts, or Internet Web site profiles or locations. (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, to aid and abet a violation of paragraph (1), for the purposes of Section 31, the person shall either violate, or aid and abet in a violation of, both Section 632 and paragraph (1). (b) A violation of subdivision (a) shall be punished by a fine not exceeding two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) per violation, or imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or in the state prison, or by both that fine and imprisonment. If the person has previously been convicted of a violation of this section, the person shall be punished by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per violation, by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or in the state prison, or by both that fine and imprisonment. (c) For purposes of this section, “health care provider” means any of the following: (1) A person licensed or certified pursuant to Division 2 (commencing with Section 500) of the Business and Professions Code. (2) A person licensed pursuant to the Osteopathic Initiative Act or the Chiropractic Initiative Act. (3) A person certified pursuant to Division 2.5 (commencing with Section 1797) of the Health and Safety Code. (4) A clinic, health dispensary, or health facility licensed or exempt from licensure pursuant to Division 2 (commencing with Section 1200) of the Health and Safety Code. (5) An employee, volunteer, or contracted agent of any group practice prepayment health care service plan regulated pursuant to the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code). (6) An employee, volunteer, independent contractor, or professional student of a clinic, health dispensary, or health care facility or health care provider described in this subdivision. (7) A professional organization that represents any of the other health care providers described in this subdivision. (d) (1) Subdivision (a) does not apply to the disclosure or distribution of a confidential communication pursuant to any of the following: (A) Any party as described in Section 633 acting within the scope of his or her authority overhearing or recording a confidential communication that he or she may lawfully overhear or record pursuant to that section. (B) Any party as described in Section 633.02 overhearing or recording a confidential communication related to sexual assault or other sexual offense that he or she may lawfully overhear or record pursuant to that section, or using or operating a body-worn camera as authorized pursuant to that section. (C) A city attorney as described in Section 633.05 overhearing or recording any communication that he or she may lawfully overhear or record pursuant to that section. (D) An airport law enforcement officer recording a communication received on an incoming telephone line pursuant to Section 633.1. (E) A party to a confidential communication recording the communication for the purpose of obtaining evidence reasonably believed to relate to the commission by another party to the communication of a crime as specified in Section 633.5. (F) A victim of domestic violence recording a prohibited communication made to him or her by the perpetrator pursuant to Section 633.6. (G) A peace officer using electronic amplifying or recording devices to eavesdrop on and record the otherwise confidential oral communications of individuals within a location when responding to an emergency situation that involves the taking of a hostage or the barricading of a location pursuant to Section 633.8. (2) This section does not affect the admissibility of any evidence that would otherwise be admissible pursuant to the authority of any section specified in paragraph (1).
- Strafe steht nicht hier, sondern in einem anderen Paragraphen
Sonstige Straftaten · Teil 1 · Geldstrafe bis $10.000
nur im Gesetzestext
Strafschärfung wegen früher verbüsster Haftstrafen
Wer erneut straffällig wird und schon früher Haftstrafen verbüsst hat, erhält Zusatzstrafen. Ist die neue Tat ein Gewaltverbrechen und war auch die frühere Tat ein Gewaltverbrechen, kommen drei Jahre je früherer Haftstrafe hinzu. In anderen Fällen kommt ein Jahr je früherer Haftstrafe wegen einer schweren Sexualstraftat hinzu. Zusatzstrafen entfallen, wenn der Verurteilte zehn beziehungsweise fünf Jahre lang straf- und haftfrei geblieben ist.
Zuschlag, keine eigene Tat. Der Wert kommt voll auf die Strafe einer anderen Tat obendrauf — die Tat gehört also mit in den Fall, sonst gibt es nichts, worauf er kommt.
Zuschlag1 Jahr Gefängnis
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 667.5 — Strafschärfung wegen früher verbüsster HaftstrafenWortlautzu
Wer erneut straffällig wird und schon früher Haftstrafen verbüsst hat, erhält Zusatzstrafen. Ist die neue Tat ein Gewaltverbrechen und war auch die frühere Tat ein Gewaltverbrechen, kommen drei Jahre je früherer Haftstrafe hinzu. In anderen Fällen kommt ein Jahr je früherer Haftstrafe wegen einer schweren Sexualstraftat hinzu. Zusatzstrafen entfallen, wenn der Verurteilte zehn beziehungsweise fünf Jahre lang straf- und haftfrei geblieben ist.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Drei Jahre je früherer verbüsster Haftstrafe, wenn neue und frühere Tat Gewaltverbrechen sind. Sonst ein Jahr je früherer verbüsster Haftstrafe wegen einer schweren Sexualstraftat. Die Zusatzstrafen sind anschliessend an die übrige Strafe zu verbüssen.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(b) Except when subdivision (a) applies, if the new offense is any felony for which a prison sentence or a sentence of imprisonment in a county jail under subdivision (h) of Section 1170 is imposed or is not suspended, in addition and consecutive to any other sentence therefor, the court shall impose a one-year term for each prior separate prison term for a sexually violent offense as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 6600 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, provided that an additional term shall not be imposed under this subdivision for any prison term served prior to a period of five years in which the defendant remained free of both the commission of an offense that results in a felony conviction, and prison custody or the imposition of a term of jail custody imposed under subdivision (h) of Section 1170 or any felony sentence that is not suspended.
(f) A prior conviction of a felony shall include a conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense which, if committed in California, is punishable by imprisonment in the state prison or in county jail under subdivision (h) of Section 1170 if the defendant served one year or more in prison for the offense in the other jurisdiction. A prior conviction of a particular felony shall include a conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense that includes all of the elements of the particular felony as defined under California law if the defendant served one year or more in prison for the offense in the other jurisdiction.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
Enhancement of prison terms for new offenses because of prior prison terms shall be imposed as follows: (a) If one of the new offenses is one of the violent felonies specified in subdivision (c), in addition to and consecutive to any other prison terms therefor, the court shall impose a three-year term for each prior separate prison term served by the defendant when the prior offense was one of the violent felonies specified in subdivision (c). However, an additional term shall not be imposed pursuant to this subdivision for any prison term served prior to a period of 10 years in which the defendant remained free of both prison custody and the commission of an offense that results in a felony conviction. (b) Except when subdivision (a) applies, if the new offense is any felony for which a prison sentence or a sentence of imprisonment in a county jail under subdivision (h) of Section 1170 is imposed or is not suspended, in addition and consecutive to any other sentence therefor, the court shall impose a one-year term for each prior separate prison term for a sexually violent offense as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 6600 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, provided that an additional term shall not be imposed under this subdivision for any prison term served prior to a period of five years in which the defendant remained free of both the commission of an offense that results in a felony conviction, and prison custody or the imposition of a term of jail custody imposed under subdivision (h) of Section 1170 or any felony sentence that is not suspended. (c) The Legislature finds and declares that the following specified crimes merit special consideration when imposing a sentence to display society’s condemnation for these extraordinary crimes of violence against the person. For the purpose of this section, “violent felony” means any of the following: (1) Murder or voluntary manslaughter. (2) Mayhem. (3) Rape as defined in paragraph (2) or (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 261 or paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (a) of former Section 262. (4) Sodomy as defined in subdivision (c) or (d) of Section 286. (5) Oral copulation as defined in subdivision (c) or (d) of Section 287 or of former Section 288a. (6) Lewd or lascivious act as defined in subdivision (a) or (b) of Section 288. (7) Any felony punishable by death or imprisonment in the state prison for life. (8) Any felony in which the defendant inflicts great bodily injury on a person other than an accomplice, which has been charged and proved as provided for in Section 12022.7, 12022.8, or 12022.9 on or after July 1, 1977, or as specified prior to July 1, 1977, in Sections 213, 264, and 461, or any felony in which the defendant uses a firearm which use has been charged and proved as provided in subdivision (a) of Section 12022.3, or Section 12022.5 or 12022.55. (9) Any robbery. (10) Arson, in violation of subdivision (a) or (b) of Section 451. (11) Sexual penetration as defined in subdivision (a) or (j) of Section 289. (12) Attempted murder. (13) A violation of Section 18745, 18750, or 18755. (14) Kidnapping. (15) Assault with the intent to commit a specified felony, in violation of Section 220. (16) Continuous sexual abuse of a child, in violation of Section 288.5. (17) Carjacking, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 215. (18) Rape or sexual penetration, in concert, in violation of Section 264.1. (19) Extortion, as defined in Section 518, which would constitute a felony violation of Section 186.22. (20) Threats to victims or witnesses, as defined in Section 136.1, which would constitute a felony violation of Section 186.22. (21) Any burglary of the first degree, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 460, wherein it is charged and proved that another person, other than an accomplice, was present in the residence during the commission of the burglary. (22) Any violation of Section 12022.53. (23) A violation of subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 11418. (24) Rape as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 261, wherein it is pleaded and proved that the defendant caused the intoxication by administering a controlled substance to the victim without their consent and with the intent to sexually assault the victim. (d) For the purposes of this section, the defendant shall be deemed to remain in prison custody for an offense until the official discharge from custody, including any period of mandatory supervision, or until release on parole or postrelease community supervision, whichever occurs first, including any time during which the defendant remains subject to reimprisonment or custody in county jail for escape from custody or is reimprisoned on revocation of parole or postrelease community supervision. The additional penalties provided for prior prison terms shall not be imposed unless they are charged and admitted or found true in the action for the new offense. (e) The additional penalties provided for prior prison terms shall not be imposed for any felony for which the defendant did not serve a prior separate term in state prison or in county jail under subdivision (h) of Section 1170. (f) A prior conviction of a felony shall include a conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense which, if committed in California, is punishable by imprisonment in the state prison or in county jail under subdivision (h) of Section 1170 if the defendant served one year or more in prison for the offense in the other jurisdiction. A prior conviction of a particular felony shall include a conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense that includes all of the elements of the particular felony as defined under California law if the defendant served one year or more in prison for the offense in the other jurisdiction. (g) A prior separate prison term for the purposes of this section shall mean a continuous completed period of prison incarceration imposed for the particular offense alone or in combination with concurrent or consecutive sentences for other crimes, including any reimprisonment on revocation of parole that is not accompanied by a new commitment to prison, and including any reimprisonment after an escape from incarceration. (h) Serving a prison term includes any confinement time in any state prison or federal penal institution as punishment for commission of an offense, including confinement in a hospital or other institution or facility credited as service of prison time in the jurisdiction of the confinement. (i) For the purposes of this section, a commitment to the State Department of Mental Health, or its successor the State Department of State Hospitals, as a mentally disordered sex offender following a conviction of a felony, which commitment exceeds one year in duration, shall be deemed a prior prison term. (j) For the purposes of this section, when a person subject to the custody, control, and discipline of the Secretary of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation is incarcerated at a facility operated by the Division of Juvenile Justice, that incarceration shall be deemed to be a term served in state prison. (k) (1) Notwithstanding subdivisions (d) and (g) or any other law, when one of the new offenses is committed while the defendant is temporarily removed from prison pursuant to Section 2690 or while the defendant is transferred to a community facility pursuant to Section 3416, 6253, or 6263, or while the defendant is on furlough pursuant to Section 6254, the defendant shall be subject to the full enhancements provided for in this section. (2) This subdivision does not apply when a full, separate, and consecutive term is imposed pursuant to any other law.
- Strafschärfung — der Wert ist ein Zusatzterm, keine Grundstrafe
- lebenslange-haft
- todesstrafe
Allgemeine Vorschriften · Teil 1
Stufe steht nicht im Gesetznur im Gesetzestext
Verhandlungsunfähigkeit des Angeklagten und Wiederherstellung der Verhandlungsfähigkeit
Wird der Angeklagte für verhandlungsfähig befunden, geht das Strafverfahren weiter. Wird er für verhandlungsunfähig befunden, wird das Verfahren ausgesetzt; das Gericht prüft, ob eine Behandlung zur Wiederherstellung der Verhandlungsfähigkeit im Interesse der Rechtspflege liegt, und ordnet gegebenenfalls die Unterbringung oder eine ambulante Behandlung an. Die Vorschrift regelt sehr ausführlich Zuständigkeiten, Berichtspflichten, Medikation gegen den Willen des Betroffenen und die Rückführung an das Gericht. Es handelt sich um eine Verfahrensvorschrift, nicht um einen Straftatbestand.
Strafe3 Monate Gefängnis
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 1370 — Verhandlungsunfähigkeit des Angeklagten und Wiederherstellung der VerhandlungsfähigkeitWortlautzu
Wird der Angeklagte für verhandlungsfähig befunden, geht das Strafverfahren weiter. Wird er für verhandlungsunfähig befunden, wird das Verfahren ausgesetzt; das Gericht prüft, ob eine Behandlung zur Wiederherstellung der Verhandlungsfähigkeit im Interesse der Rechtspflege liegt, und ordnet gegebenenfalls die Unterbringung oder eine ambulante Behandlung an. Die Vorschrift regelt sehr ausführlich Zuständigkeiten, Berichtspflichten, Medikation gegen den Willen des Betroffenen und die Rückführung an das Gericht. Es handelt sich um eine Verfahrensvorschrift, nicht um einen Straftatbestand.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Keine Strafandrohung. Die Vorschrift begrenzt die Unterbringung auf zwei Jahre ab Anordnung oder auf die Höchststrafe der schwersten angeklagten Tat, je nachdem, was kürzer ist; spätestens 90 Tage vor Ablauf ist der weiterhin verhandlungsunfähige Angeklagte an das anordnende Gericht zurückzuführen.
Die Übersetzung sieht hier keine Strafe, die Auswertung hat trotzdem eine Zahl gefunden — meist eine Frist im Verfahren. Es gilt der englische Wortlaut.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(c) (1) At the end of two years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendant’s term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court, and custody of the defendant shall be transferred without delay to the committing county and shall remain with the county until further order of the court.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced. (B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent and is not charged with an offense listed in subdivision (d) of Section 1001.36, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended, and the court shall do all of the following: (i) (I) Determine whether restoring the person to mental competence is in the interests of justice. (II) In exercising its discretion pursuant to this clause, the court shall consider the relevant circumstances of the charged offense, including the harm done to the victim, the defendant’s mental health condition, including, without limitation, any intellectual or developmental disability, the history of treatment, the criminal history of the defendant, whether the defendant is likely to face incarceration if convicted, whether the defendant has previously been found incompetent to stand trial, whether restoring the person to mental competence will enhance public safety, and any other relevant considerations. The court shall provide the defense and prosecution an opportunity to be heard on whether restoration is in the interests of justice. (ii) If restoring the person to mental competence is in the interests of justice, the court shall state its reasons orally on the record and the case shall proceed as provided in subparagraph (C). (iii) If restoring the person to mental competence is not in the interests of justice, the court shall conduct a hearing, pursuant to Section 1001.36, and, if the court deems the defendant eligible, grant diversion pursuant to that section for a period not to exceed two years from the date the individual is accepted into diversion or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the complaint, whichever is shorter. (I) The hearing shall be held no later than 30 days after the finding of incompetence. If the hearing is delayed beyond 30 days, the court shall order the defendant to be released on their own recognizance pending the hearing. (II) If the defendant performs satisfactorily on diversion pursuant to this subclause, at the end of the period of diversion, the court shall dismiss the criminal charges that were the subject of the criminal proceedings at the time of the initial diversion. (III) If the court finds the defendant ineligible or unsuitable for diversion based on the circumstances set forth in subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 1001.36, or if any of the conditions described in subdivision (g) of Section 1001.36 are present, the court may, after notice to the defendant, defense counsel, and the prosecution, hold a hearing to determine whether to do any of the following: (ia) Order modification of the treatment plan in accordance with a recommendation from the treatment provider. (ib) Refer the defendant to assisted outpatient treatment pursuant to Section 5346 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. A referral to assisted outpatient treatment may only occur in a county where services are available pursuant to Section 5348 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and the agency agrees to accept responsibility for treatment of the defendant. A hearing to determine eligibility for assisted outpatient treatment shall be held within 45 days after the finding of incompetence. If the hearing is delayed beyond 45 days, the court shall order the defendant, if confined in county jail, to be released on their own recognizance pending that hearing. If the defendant is accepted into assisted outpatient treatment, the charges shall be dismissed pursuant to Section 1385. (ic) Refer the defendant to the county conservatorship investigator in the county of commitment for possible conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. A defendant shall only be referred to the conservatorship investigator if it appears to the court or a qualified mental health expert that the defendant appears to be gravely disabled, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Any hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county of commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the county mental health director or the director’s designee and shall notify the county mental health director or their designee of the outcome of the proceedings. Before establishing a conservatorship, the public guardian shall investigate all available alternatives to conservatorship pursuant to Section 5354 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. If a petition is not filed within 30 days of the referral, the court shall order the defendant, if confined in county jail, to be released on their own recognizance pending conservatorship proceedings. The charges shall be dismissed pursuant to Section 1385 upon the filing of either a temporary or permanent conservatorship petition unless the basis for the petition is that the defendant is gravely disabled as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (id) Refer the defendant to the CARE program pursuant to Section 5978 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. A hearing to determine eligibility for the CARE program shall be held within 14 court days after the date on which the petition for the referral is filed. If the hearing is delayed beyond 14 court days, the court shall order the defendant, if confined in county jail, to be released on their own recognizance pending that hearing. If the defendant is accepted into the CARE program, the charges shall be dismissed pursuant to Section 1385. (ie) Reinstate competency proceedings, in which case the court shall credit any time spent in mental health diversion against the maximum term of commitment as specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c). (C) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent and restoring the defendant to competence is in the interests of justice or they are charged with an offense listed in subdivision (d) of Section 1001.36, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent. (i) The court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system approved by the community program director, or their designee, that will promote the defendant’s speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600. (ii) (I) If a defendant has been found mentally incompetent, and the court has ordered commitment to a State Department of State Hospitals facility as described in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and is not in the custody of the local sheriff, the department shall inform the sheriff when a placement in a facility becomes available and make reasonable efforts to coordinate a delivery by the sheriff to transport the defendant to the facility. If the department has made reasonable attempts for 90 days, starting with the date of commitment, and the defendant has not been transported, as originally ordered under clause (i), the department shall inform the court and sheriff in writing. (II) If the sheriff has not delivered the defendant to a State Department of State Hospitals facility within 90 days after the department’s written notice, the commitment to the State Department of State Hospitals shall be automatically stayed and the department may remove the defendant from the pending placement list until the court notifies the department in writing that the defendant is available for transport and the defendant shall regain their place on the pending placement list. (iii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of persons with a mental health disorder, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others. (iv) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the person’s release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others. (v) (I) If, at any time after the court finds that the defendant is mentally incompetent and before the defendant is transported to a facility pursuant to this section, the court is provided with any information that the defendant may benefit from diversion pursuant to Chapter 2.8A (commencing with Section 1001.35) of Title 6, the court may make a finding that the defendant is an appropriate candidate for diversion. (II) Notwithstanding subclause (I), if a defendant is found mentally incompetent and is transferred to a facility described in Section 4361.6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court may, at any time upon receiving any information that the defendant may benefit from diversion pursuant to Chapter 2.8A (commencing with Section 1001.35) of Title 6, make a finding that the defendant is an appropriate candidate for diversion. (vi) If a defendant is found by the court to be an appropriate candidate for diversion pursuant to clause (v), the defendant’s eligibility shall be determined pursuant to Section 1001.36. A defendant granted diversion may participate for the lesser of the period specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) or the applicable period described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 1001.36. If, during that period, the court determines that criminal proceedings should be reinstated pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 1001.36, the court shall, pursuant to Section 1369, appoint a psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, or any other expert the court may deem appropriate, to determine the defendant’s competence to stand trial. (vii) Upon the dismissal of charges at the conclusion of the period of diversion, pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1001.36, a defendant shall no longer be deemed incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this section. (viii) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice, in writing, of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (iii) or (iv) for inclusion in the defendant’s state summary criminal history information. (D) If at any time after the finding of mental incompetence, but before the defendant begins treatment in a program or facility to promote the defendant’s speedy restoration of mental competence pursuant to this section, there is a change in circumstance that affects the likelihood that the defendant will be able to be attain competence, either party may instead petition the court to proceed in accordance with subdivision (b). (E) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee. (F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected. (G) For purposes of this paragraph, “violent felony” means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5. (H) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant. (I) If, at any time after the court has declared a defendant incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this section, counsel for the defendant or a jail medical or mental health staff provider provides the court with substantial evidence that the defendant’s psychiatric symptoms have changed to such a degree as to create a doubt in the mind of the judge as to the defendant’s current mental incompetence, the court may appoint a psychiatrist or a licensed psychologist to opine as to whether the defendant has attained competence. If, in the opinion of that expert, the defendant has attained competence, the court shall proceed as if a certificate of restoration of competence has been returned pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1372. (J) (i) The State Department of State Hospitals may, pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, conduct an evaluation of the defendant in county custody to determine any of the following: (I) The defendant has attained competence. (II) There is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain competence in the foreseeable future. (III) The defendant should be referred to the county for further evaluation for potential participation in a county diversion program, if one exists, or to another outpatient treatment program. (ii) If, in the opinion of the department’s expert, the defendant has attained competence, the court shall proceed as if a certificate of restoration of competence has been returned pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1372. (iii) If, in the opinion of the department’s expert, there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall proceed pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. (2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows: (A) (i) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals. (ii) A defendant shall first be considered for placement in an outpatient treatment program, a community treatment program, or a diversion program, if any such program is available, unless a court, based upon the recommendation of the community program director or their designee, finds that either the clinical needs of the defendant or the risk to community safety, warrant placement in a State Department of State Hospitals facility. (B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows: (i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true: (I) Based upon the opinion of the psychiatrist or licensed psychologist offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendant’s mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendant’s mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to their physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and their condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant. (II) Based upon the opinion of the psychiatrist or licensed psychologist offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, the defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in the defendant being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendant’s present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence. (III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, and based upon the opinion of the psychiatrist offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendant’s ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is medically necessary and appropriate in light of their medical condition. (ii) (I) If the court finds the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) to be true, and if pursuant to the opinion offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, a psychiatrist has opined that treatment with antipsychotic medications is appropriate for the defendant, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of antipsychotic medication as needed, including on an involuntary basis, to be administered under the direction and supervision of a licensed psychiatrist. (II) If the court finds the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) to be true, and if pursuant to the opinion offered to the court pursuant subdivision (b) of Section 1369, a licensed psychologist has opined that treatment with antipsychotic medication may be appropriate for the defendant, the court shall issue an order authorizing treatment by a licensed psychiatrist on an involuntary basis. That treatment may include the administration of antipsychotic medication as needed, to be administered under the direction and supervision of a licensed psychiatrist. (III) If the court finds the conditions described in subclause (III) of clause (i) to be true, and if pursuant to the opinion offered to the court pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1369, a psychiatrist has opined that it is appropriate to treat the defendant with antipsychotic medication, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of antipsychotic medication as needed, including on an involuntary basis, to be administered under the direction and supervision of a licensed psychiatrist. (iii) An order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendant’s treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter, including a county jail, shall remain in effect when the defendant returns to county custody pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), or pursuant to subparagraph (C) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 1372, but shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i). (iv) In all cases, the treating hospital, county jail, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of their counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendant’s consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily. (vi) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from their counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily. (vii) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendant’s appearance or behavior that would affect the defendant’s ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients’ rights advocate regarding the defendant’s rights under this section. (C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws their consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate. (D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients’ rights advocate. The attorney or patients’ rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendant’s rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for the defendant’s interests at the hearing, review the panel’s final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of their right to judicial review of the panel’s decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing: (I) To be given timely access to the defendant’s records. (II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right. (III) To present evidence at the hearing. (IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication. (V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendant’s behalf. (VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner. (ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrist’s certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition. (iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section. (iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period. (v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication. (vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period. (vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judge’s order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days. (viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7). (3) (A) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed: (i) The commitment order, which shall include a specification of the charges, an assessment of whether involuntary treatment with antipsychotic medications is warranted, and any orders by the court, pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2), authorizing involuntary treatment with antipsychotic medications. (ii) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c). (iii) (I) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment. (II) If a certificate of restoration of competency was filed with the court pursuant to Section 1372 and the court subsequently rejected the certification, a copy of the court order or minute order rejecting the certification shall be provided. The court order shall include a new computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the defendant’s maximum term of commitment based on the court’s rejection of the certification. (iv) State summary criminal history information. (v) Jail classification records for the defendant’s current incarceration. (vi) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency. (vii) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports. (viii) The community program director’s placement recommendation report. (ix) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. (x) Medical records, including jail mental health records. (B) If a defendant is committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, and the department determines that additional medical or mental health treatment records are needed for continuity of care, any private or public entity holding medical or mental health treatment records of that defendant shall release those records upon receiving a written request from the State Department of State Hospitals within 10 calendar days after the request. The private or public entity holding the medical or mental health treatment records shall comply with all applicable federal and state privacy laws prior to disclosure. The State Department of State Hospitals shall not release records obtained during the admission process under this subdivision, pursuant to Section 1798.68 of the Civil Code, or subdivision (b) of Section 5328 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the placement facility of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. (5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals. (6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2. Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee. (B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be electronically transferred or taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1). (7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendant’s patients’ rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients’ rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order. (B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendant’s attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on a petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order. (8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving their rapport with the defendant or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the defendant prior to the hearing. (b) (1) Within 90 days after a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is in county custody, the county jail shall provide access to the defendant for purposes of the State Department of State Hospitals conducting an evaluation of the defendant pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Based upon this evaluation, the State Department of State Hospitals may make a written report to the court within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a) concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication is necessary. If the defendant remains in county custody after the initial 90-day report, the State Department of State Hospitals may conduct an evaluation of the defendant pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and make a written report to the court concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication is necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report, in writing, to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendant’s progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court. (A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain mental competence in the foreseeable future, custody of the defendant shall be transferred without delay to the committing county and shall remain with the county until further order of the court. The defendant shall be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall not order the defendant returned to the custody of the State Department of State Hospitals under the same commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee. (B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will attain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following: (i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney. (ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing county’s sheriff that immediate transportation will be needed for the defendant pursuant to subparagraph (A). (C) If a county does not take custody of a defendant committed to the State Department of State Hospitals within 10 calendar days following notification made pursuant to clause (ii) of subparagraph (B), the county shall be charged the daily rate for a state hospital bed, as established by the State Department of State Hospitals. (2) The reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendant’s progress toward attaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following: (A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication. (B) If the defendant lacks the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to their physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication. (C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if the defendant is not treated with antipsychotic medication. (D) Whether the defendant has a mental disorder for which medications are the only effective treatment. (E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendant’s ability to collaborate with counsel. (F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication. (G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency. (H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency. (I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency. (3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine if grounds for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication exist, whether or not an order was issued at the time of commitment, and shall do one of the following: (A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, any order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect. (B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, any order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated. (C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall determine whether to vacate the order or issue a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider the opinions in reports submitted pursuant to paragraph (1), including any opinions rendered pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The court may, upon a showing of good cause, set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a). The court shall require witness testimony to occur remotely, including clinical testimony pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. In-person witness testimony shall only be allowed upon a court’s finding of good cause. (D) If the report states a basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication and the court did not issue such order at the time of commitment, the court shall determine whether to issue an order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider the opinions in reports submitted pursuant to paragraph (1), including any opinions rendered pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The court may, upon a finding of good cause, set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether an order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a). The court shall require witness testimony to occur remotely, including clinical testimony pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. In-person witness testimony shall only be allowed upon a court’s finding of good cause. (E) This paragraph also applies to recommendations submitted pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1372, when a recommendation is included as to whether an order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medications should be extended or issued. (4) If it is determined by the court that treatment for the defendant’s mental impairment is not being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court, and, if the defendant is not in county custody, returned to the custody of the county. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee. (5) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a). (c) (1) At the end of two years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendant’s term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court, and custody of the defendant shall be transferred without delay to the committing county and shall remain with the county until further order of the court. The court shall not order the defendant returned to the custody of the State Department of State Hospitals under the same commitment. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders. The maximum term of commitment applies to the aggregate of all previous commitments. (2) (A) The medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall provide notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing county’s sheriff that immediate transportation will be needed for the defendant pursuant to paragraph (1). (B) If a county does not take custody of a defendant committed to the State Department of State Hospitals within 10 calendar days following notification pursuant to subparagraph (A), the county shall be charged the daily rate for a state hospital bed, as established by the State Department of State Hospitals. (3) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subdivision, subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), or paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b), and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendant’s counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendant’s counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings. (4) If a defendant is returned to court pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subdivision, subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), or paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b), and the prosecution elects to dismiss and refile charges pursuant to Section 1387, the court shall presume that the defendant is incompetent unless the court is presented with relevant and credible evidence that the defendant is competent. This evidence may include medical records, witness statements, or reports by qualified medical experts. If the court is satisfied that it has received substantial evidence that the defendant is competent, the court shall proceed as provided in Section 1369. Otherwise, the court shall find that the defendant is not mentally competent to stand trial and shall proceed as provided in paragraphs (1) and (3). The court shall not order the defendant returned to the custody of the State Department of State Hospitals for the purpose of restoration of competency. (5) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending. (6) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel. (d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, or in those instances where the defendant has been placed under a conservatorship pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant. (e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). (f) As used in this chapter, “community program director” means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (g) For the purpose of this section, “secure treatment facility” does not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility. (h) This section does not preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.
Sonstige Verfahren · Teil 2
nur im Gesetzestext
Landesweite Vorstrafenauskunft des Justizministeriums
Das Justizministerium führt die landesweite zusammenfassende Vorstrafenauskunft mit Personendaten, Fingerabdrücken, Lichtbildern, Festnahmen, Anklagen, Verfahrensausgängen und Strafen. Die Vorschrift zählt sehr ausführlich auf, welche Gerichte, Behörden, Berufsverbände und sonstigen Stellen diese Auskunft zur Erfüllung ihrer Aufgaben erhalten dürfen. Für Auskünfte zu Einstellungs-, Zertifizierungs- und Lizenzierungszwecken gelten besondere Schutzvorschriften. Verstösse gegen diese Beschränkungen sind strafbar und begründen zusätzlich einen Schadensersatzanspruch.
Strafebis zu 6 Monate oder bis $1.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 11105 — Landesweite Vorstrafenauskunft des JustizministeriumsWortlautzu
Das Justizministerium führt die landesweite zusammenfassende Vorstrafenauskunft mit Personendaten, Fingerabdrücken, Lichtbildern, Festnahmen, Anklagen, Verfahrensausgängen und Strafen. Die Vorschrift zählt sehr ausführlich auf, welche Gerichte, Behörden, Berufsverbände und sonstigen Stellen diese Auskunft zur Erfüllung ihrer Aufgaben erhalten dürfen. Für Auskünfte zu Einstellungs-, Zertifizierungs- und Lizenzierungszwecken gelten besondere Schutzvorschriften. Verstösse gegen diese Beschränkungen sind strafbar und begründen zusätzlich einen Schadensersatzanspruch.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Ein Verstoss gegen den betreffenden Absatz ist ein Vergehen und gibt dem geschädigten gegenwärtigen oder künftigen Beschäftigten einen Anspruch gegen das Versorgungs- oder Kabelunternehmen auf Ersatz des unmittelbar verursachten Schadens.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(iv) A violation of this paragraph is a misdemeanor, and shall give the current or prospective employee who is injured by the violation a cause of action against the public utility or cable corporation to recover damages proximately caused by the violations. A public utility’s or cable corporation’s request for state summary criminal history information for purposes of employing current or prospective employees who may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds in the course of their employment shall be deemed a “compelling need” as required to be shown in this subdivision.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) The Department of Justice shall maintain state summary criminal history information. (2) As used in this section: (A) “State summary criminal history information” means the master record of information compiled by the Attorney General pertaining to the identification and criminal history of a person, such as name, date of birth, physical description, fingerprints, photographs, dates of arrests, arresting agencies and booking numbers, charges, dispositions, sentencing information, and similar data about the person. (B) “State summary criminal history information” does not refer to records and data compiled by criminal justice agencies other than the Attorney General, nor does it refer to records of complaints to or investigations conducted by, or records of intelligence information or security procedures of, the office of the Attorney General and the Department of Justice. (b) The Attorney General shall furnish state summary criminal history information to the following, if needed in the course of their duties, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any other entity, in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply: (1) The courts of the state. (2) Peace officers of the state, as defined in Section 830.1, subdivisions (a) and (e) of Section 830.2, subdivision (a) of Section 830.3, subdivision (a) of Section 830.31, and subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 830.5. (3) District attorneys of the state. (4) Prosecuting city attorneys or city prosecutors of a city within the state. (5) City attorneys pursuing civil gang injunctions pursuant to Section 186.22a, drug abatement actions pursuant to Section 3479 or 3480 of the Civil Code or Section 11571 of the Health and Safety Code, or a city attorney or county counsel pursuing gun violence restraining orders pursuant to Division 3.2 (commencing with Section 18100) of Title 2 of Part 6. (6) Probation officers of the state. (7) Parole officers of the state. (8) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in proceedings upon a petition for a certificate of rehabilitation and pardon pursuant to Section 4852.08. (9) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in a criminal case or a juvenile delinquency proceeding, including all appeals and postconviction motions, or a parole, mandatory supervision pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170, or postrelease community supervision revocation or revocation extension proceeding, if the information is requested in the course of representation. (10) An agency, officer, or official of the state if the state summary criminal history information is required to implement a statute or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. The agency, officer, or official of the state authorized by this paragraph to receive state summary criminal history information may perform state and federal criminal history information checks as provided for in subdivision (u). The Department of Justice shall provide a state or federal response to the agency, officer, or official pursuant to subdivision (p). (11) A city, county, city and county, or district, if access is needed in order to assist that agency in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, and if the access is specifically authorized by the city council, board of supervisors, or governing board of the city, county, or district if the state summary criminal history information is required to implement a statute, ordinance, or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. The city, county, city and county, or district authorized by this paragraph may also transmit fingerprint images and related information to the Department of Justice to be transmitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation. (12) The subject of the state summary criminal history information under procedures established under Article 5 (commencing with Section 11120). (13) A person or entity when access is expressly authorized by statute if the criminal history information is required to implement a statute or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. (14) Health officers of a city, county, city and county, or district when in the performance of their official duties enforcing Section 120175 of the Health and Safety Code. (15) A managing or supervising correctional officer of a county jail or other county correctional facility. (16) A humane society, or society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, for the specific purpose of complying with Section 14502 of the Corporations Code for the appointment of humane officers. (17) Local child support agencies established by Section 17304 of the Family Code. When a local child support agency closes a support enforcement case containing state summary criminal history information, the agency shall delete or purge from the file and destroy documents or information concerning or arising from offenses for or of which the parent has been arrested, charged, or convicted, other than for offenses related to the parent’s having failed to provide support for minor children, consistent with the requirements of Section 17531 of the Family Code. (18) County child welfare agency personnel who have been delegated the authority of county probation officers to access state summary criminal history information pursuant to Section 272 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Information from criminal history records provided pursuant to this subdivision shall not be used for a purpose other than those specified in this section and Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. When an agency obtains records both on the basis of name checks and fingerprint checks, final placement decisions shall be based only on the records obtained pursuant to the fingerprint check. (19) The court of a tribe, or court of a consortium of tribes, that has entered into an agreement with the state pursuant to Section 10553.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. This information may be used only for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and for tribal approval or tribal licensing of foster care or adoptive homes. Article 6 (commencing with Section 11140) shall apply to officers, members, and employees of a tribal court receiving state summary criminal history information pursuant to this section. (20) Child welfare agency personnel of a tribe or consortium of tribes that has entered into an agreement with the state pursuant to Section 10553.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and to whom the state has delegated duties under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 272 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The purposes for use of the information shall be for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and for tribal approval or tribal licensing of foster care or adoptive homes. When an agency obtains records on the basis of name checks and fingerprint checks, final placement decisions shall be based only on the records obtained pursuant to the fingerprint check. Article 6 (commencing with Section 11140) shall apply to child welfare agency personnel receiving criminal record offender information pursuant to this section. (21) An officer providing conservatorship investigations pursuant to Sections 5351, 5354, and 5356 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (22) A court investigator providing investigations or reviews in conservatorships pursuant to Section 1826, 1850, 1851, or 2250.6 of the Probate Code. (23) A person authorized to conduct a guardianship investigation pursuant to Section 1513 of the Probate Code. (24) A humane officer pursuant to Section 14502 of the Corporations Code for the purposes of performing the officer’s duties. (25) A public agency described in subdivision (b) of Section 15975 of the Government Code, for the purpose of oversight and enforcement policies with respect to its contracted providers. (26) (A) A state entity, or its designee, that receives federal tax information. A state entity or its designee that is authorized by this paragraph to receive state summary criminal history information also may transmit fingerprint images and related information to the Department of Justice to be transmitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of the state entity or its designee obtaining federal-level criminal offender record information from the Department of Justice. This information shall be used only for the purposes set forth in Section 1044 of the Government Code. (B) For purposes of this paragraph, “federal tax information,” “state entity” and “designee” are as defined in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3), respectively, of subdivision (f) of Section 1044 of the Government Code. (27) The director of the State Department of State Hospitals, or their designee, for use related to research and evaluation studies described in Section 4046 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and subject to the limitations described in that section. (c) The Attorney General may furnish state summary criminal history information and, when specifically authorized by this subdivision, federal-level criminal history information upon a showing of a compelling need to any of the following, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any other entity in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply: (1) A public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, that operates a nuclear energy facility when access is needed in order to assist in employing persons to work at the facility, provided that, if the Attorney General supplies the data, the Attorney General shall furnish a copy of the data to the person to whom the data relates. (2) A peace officer of the state other than those included in subdivision (b). (3) An illegal dumping enforcement officer as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 830.7. (4) A peace officer of another country. (5) Public officers, other than peace officers, of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States, provided that access to records similar to state summary criminal history information is expressly authorized by a statute of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States if the information is needed for the performance of their official duties. (6) A person when disclosure is requested by a probation, parole, or peace officer with the consent of the subject of the state summary criminal history information and for purposes of furthering the rehabilitation of the subject. (7) The courts of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States. (8) Peace officers of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States. (9) An individual who is the subject of the record requested if needed in conjunction with an application to enter the United States or a foreign nation. (10) (A) (i) A public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, or a cable corporation as defined in subparagraph (B), if receipt of criminal history information is needed in order to assist in employing current or prospective employees, contract employees, or subcontract employees who, in the course of their employment, may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds. The information provided shall be limited to the record of convictions and arrests for which the person is released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (ii) If the Attorney General supplies the data pursuant to this paragraph, the Attorney General shall furnish a copy of the data to the current or prospective employee to whom the data relates. (iii) State summary criminal history information is confidential and the receiving public utility or cable corporation shall not disclose its contents, other than for the purpose for which it was acquired. The state summary criminal history information in the possession of the public utility or cable corporation and all copies made from it shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after employment or promotion or transfer is denied or granted, except for those cases where a current or prospective employee is out on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial, in which case the state summary criminal history information and all copies shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after the case is resolved. (iv) A violation of this paragraph is a misdemeanor, and shall give the current or prospective employee who is injured by the violation a cause of action against the public utility or cable corporation to recover damages proximately caused by the violations. A public utility’s or cable corporation’s request for state summary criminal history information for purposes of employing current or prospective employees who may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds in the course of their employment shall be deemed a “compelling need” as required to be shown in this subdivision. (v) This section shall not be construed as imposing a duty upon public utilities or cable corporations to request state summary criminal history information on current or prospective employees. (B) For purposes of this paragraph, “cable corporation” means a corporation or firm that transmits or provides television, computer, or telephone services by cable, digital, fiber optic, satellite, or comparable technology to subscribers for a fee. (C) Requests for federal-level criminal history information received by the Department of Justice from entities authorized pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of Justice. Federal-level criminal history information received or compiled by the Department of Justice may then be disseminated to the entities referenced in subparagraph (A), as authorized by law. (11) A campus of the California State University or the University of California, or a four-year college or university accredited by a regional accreditation organization approved by the United States Department of Education, if needed in conjunction with an application for admission by a convicted felon to a special education program for convicted felons, including, but not limited to, university alternatives and halfway houses. Only conviction information shall be furnished. The college or university may require the convicted felon to be fingerprinted, and any inquiry to the department under this section shall include the convicted felon’s fingerprints and any other information specified by the department. (12) A foreign government, if requested by the individual who is the subject of the record requested, if needed in conjunction with the individual’s application to adopt a minor child who is a citizen of that foreign nation. Requests for information pursuant to this paragraph shall be in accordance with the process described in Sections 11122 to 11124, inclusive. The response shall be provided to the foreign government or its designee and to the individual who requested the information. (d) Whenever an authorized request for state summary criminal history information pertains to a person whose fingerprints are on file with the Department of Justice and the department has no criminal history of that person, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the fingerprint card accompanying the request for information, if any, may be stamped “no criminal record” and returned to the person or entity making the request. (e) Whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished as the result of an application and is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the Department of Justice may charge the person or entity making the request a fee that it determines to be sufficient to reimburse the department for the cost of furnishing the information. In addition, the Department of Justice may add a surcharge to the fee to fund maintenance and improvements to the systems from which the information is obtained. Notwithstanding any other law, a person or entity required to pay a fee to the department for information received under this section may charge the applicant a fee sufficient to reimburse the person or entity for this expense. All moneys received by the department pursuant to this section, Sections 11105.3 and 26190, and former Section 13588 of the Education Code shall be deposited in a special account in the General Fund to be available for expenditure by the department to offset costs incurred pursuant to those sections and for maintenance and improvements to the systems from which the information is obtained upon appropriation by the Legislature. (f) Whenever there is a conflict, the processing of criminal fingerprints and fingerprints of applicants for security guard or alarm agent registrations or firearms qualification permits submitted pursuant to Section 7583.9, 7583.23, 7596.3, or 7598.4 of the Business and Professions Code shall take priority over the processing of other applicant fingerprints. (g) It is not a violation of this section to disseminate statistical or research information obtained from a record, provided that the identity of the subject of the record is not disclosed. (h) It is not a violation of this section to include information obtained from a record in (1) a transcript or record of a judicial or administrative proceeding or (2) any other public record if the inclusion of the information in the public record is authorized by a court, statute, or decisional law. (i) Notwithstanding any other law, the Department of Justice or a state or local law enforcement agency may require the submission of fingerprints for the purpose of conducting state summary criminal history information checks that are authorized by law. (j) The state summary criminal history information shall include any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 1367) of Title 10 of Part 2 arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290. (k) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization and the information is to be used for peace officer employment or certification purposes. As used in this subdivision, a peace officer is defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Every arrest or detention, except for an arrest or detention resulting in an exoneration, provided, however, that where the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition for the arrest, the Department of Justice first makes a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. (D) Every successful diversion. (E) Every date and agency name associated with all retained peace officer or nonsworn law enforcement agency employee preemployment criminal offender record information search requests. (F) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (G) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (l) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by a criminal justice agency or organization as defined in Section 13101, and the information is to be used for criminal justice employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Every arrest for an offense for which the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition or that did not result in a conviction, provided that the Department of Justice first makes a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. However, information concerning an arrest shall not be disclosed if the records of the Department of Justice indicate or if the genuine effort reveals that the subject was exonerated, successfully completed a diversion or deferred entry of judgment program, or the arrest was deemed a detention, or the subject was granted relief pursuant to Section 851.91. (D) Every date and agency name associated with all retained peace officer or nonsworn law enforcement agency employee preemployment criminal offender record information search requests. (E) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (F) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (m) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization pursuant to Section 1522, 1568.09, 1569.17, or 1596.871 of the Health and Safety Code, or a statute that incorporates the criteria of any of those sections or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction of an offense rendered against the applicant, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.49. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Every arrest for an offense for which the State Department of Social Services is required by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1522 of the Health and Safety Code to determine if an applicant has been arrested. However, if the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition for an arrest, the Department of Justice shall first make a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. (D) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (E) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (3) Notwithstanding the requirements of the sections referenced in paragraph (1) of this subdivision, the Department of Justice shall not disseminate information about an arrest subsequently deemed a detention or an arrest that resulted in the successful completion of a diversion program, exoneration, or a grant of relief pursuant to Section 851.91. (n) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information, to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an authorized agency, organization, or individual pursuant to any of the following: (A) Paragraph (10) of subdivision (c), when the information is to be used by a cable corporation. (B) Section 11105.3 or 11105.4. (C) Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (D) A statute that incorporates the criteria of any of the statutory provisions listed in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C), or of this subdivision, by reference. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.49, rendered against the applicant for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. However, with the exception of those offenses for which registration is required pursuant to Section 290, the Department of Justice shall not disseminate information pursuant to this subdivision unless the conviction occurred within 10 years of the date of the agency’s request for information or the conviction is over 10 years old but the subject of the request was incarcerated within 10 years of the agency’s request for information. (B) Every arrest for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (D) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (o) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization pursuant to Section 379 or 1300 of the Financial Code or a statute that incorporates the criteria of either of those sections or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in Section 1300 of the Financial Code, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.49. (B) Every arrest for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in Section 1300 of the Financial Code for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (C) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (p) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice in accordance with federal law and as the result of an application by an agency, organization, or individual not defined in subdivision (k), (l), (m), (n), or (o), or a statute that incorporates the criteria of that section or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.425, 1203.44, or 1203.49. The Commission on Teacher Credentialing, school districts, county offices of education, charter schools, private schools, state special schools for the blind and deaf, or any other entity required to have a background check because of a contract with a school district, county office of education, charter school, private school, or state special school for the blind and deaf, shall receive every conviction rendered against an applicant, retroactive to January 1, 2020, regardless of relief granted pursuant to Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.425, or 1203.49. (B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A) or any other law, information for a conviction for a controlled substance offense listed in Section 11350 or 11377, or former Section 11500 or 11500.5, of the Health and Safety Code that is more than five years old, for which relief is granted pursuant to Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.425, or 1203.49, shall not be disseminated. (C) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial. (D) Sex offender registration status of the applicant. (E) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response. (q) All agencies, organizations, or individuals defined in subdivisions (k), (l), (m), (n), (o), and (p) may contract with the Department of Justice for subsequent notification pursuant to Section 11105.2. This subdivision shall not supersede sections that mandate an agency, organization, or individual to contract with the Department of Justice for subsequent notification pursuant to Section 11105.2. (r) This section does not require the Department of Justice to cease compliance with any other statutory notification requirements. (s) The provisions of Section 50.12 of Title 28 of the Code of Federal Regulations are to be followed in processing federal criminal history information. (t) Whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency, organization, or individual defined in subdivisions (k) to (p), inclusive, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the authorized agency, organization, or individual shall expeditiously furnish a copy of the information to the person to whom the information relates if the information is a basis for an adverse employment, licensing, or certification decision. When furnished other than in person, the copy shall be delivered to the last contact information provided by the applicant. (u) (1) If a fingerprint-based criminal history information check is required pursuant to any statute, that check shall be requested from the Department of Justice and shall be applicable to the person identified in the referencing statute. The agency or entity identified in the statute shall submit to the Department of Justice fingerprint images and related information required by the Department of Justice of the types of applicants identified in the referencing statute, for the purpose of obtaining information as to the existence and content of a record of state or federal convictions and state or federal arrests and also information as to the existence and content of a record of the state or federal arrests for which the Department of Justice establishes that the person is free on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial or appeal. (2) If requested, the Department of Justice shall transmit fingerprint images and related information received pursuant to this section to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining a federal criminal history information check. The Department of Justice shall review the information returned from the Federal Bureau of Investigation, and compile and disseminate a response to the agency or entity identified in the referencing statute, pursuant to the identified subdivision. The Department of Justice shall not disseminate federal criminal history information to a private entity that is unauthorized to receive it under federal law. (3) The Department of Justice shall provide a state response to the agency or entity identified in the referencing statute, pursuant to the identified subdivision. (4) The agency or entity identified in the referencing statute shall request from the Department of Justice subsequent notification service, as provided pursuant to Section 11105.2, for persons described in the referencing statute. (5) The Department of Justice shall charge a fee sufficient to cover the reasonable cost of processing the request described in this subdivision.
Kein eigenes Strafmaß im Text. Dann gilt Cal. Penal Code § 19: bis 6 Monate Haft oder bis $1.000 — diese Zahlen stehen dort, nicht hier.
Ermittlung und Bekämpfung von Straftaten und Straftätern · Teil 4
nur im Gesetzestext
Strafschärfung für Schusswaffengebrauch bei schweren Verbrechen
Diese Vorschrift gilt für schwere Verbrechen wie Mord, schwere Verstümmelung, Entführung, Raub, Autoraub, Vergewaltigung und sexuellen Missbrauch von Kindern. Wer dabei persönlich eine Schusswaffe einsetzt, erhält zehn Jahre zusätzlich; die Waffe muss weder geladen noch funktionsfähig sein. Wer persönlich und absichtlich schiesst, erhält 20 Jahre zusätzlich. Verursacht der Schuss einer anderen Person als einem Mittäter eine schwere Körperverletzung oder den Tod, kommt die höchste Zusatzstrafe hinzu.
Zuschlag, keine eigene Tat. Der Wert kommt voll auf die Strafe einer anderen Tat obendrauf — die Tat gehört also mit in den Fall, sonst gibt es nichts, worauf er kommt.
Zuschlag10 bis 20 Jahre Gefängnis
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 12022.53 — Strafschärfung für Schusswaffengebrauch bei schweren VerbrechenWortlautzu
Diese Vorschrift gilt für schwere Verbrechen wie Mord, schwere Verstümmelung, Entführung, Raub, Autoraub, Vergewaltigung und sexuellen Missbrauch von Kindern. Wer dabei persönlich eine Schusswaffe einsetzt, erhält zehn Jahre zusätzlich; die Waffe muss weder geladen noch funktionsfähig sein. Wer persönlich und absichtlich schiesst, erhält 20 Jahre zusätzlich. Verursacht der Schuss einer anderen Person als einem Mittäter eine schwere Körperverletzung oder den Tod, kommt die höchste Zusatzstrafe hinzu.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Zusätzliche und anschliessend zu verbüssende Freiheitsstrafe im Staatsgefängnis von zehn Jahren für den persönlichen Einsatz einer Schusswaffe, von 20 Jahren für das persönliche und absichtliche Abfeuern und von 25 Jahren bis lebenslang, wenn dadurch eine schwere Körperverletzung oder der Tod eines Nichtbeteiligten verursacht wird.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(b) Notwithstanding any other law, a person who, in the commission of a felony specified in subdivision (a), personally uses a firearm, shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for 10 years. The firearm need not be operable or loaded for this enhancement to apply.
(c) Notwithstanding any other law, a person who, in the commission of a felony specified in subdivision (a), personally and intentionally discharges a firearm, shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for 20 years.
(d) Notwithstanding any other law, a person who, in the commission of a felony specified in subdivision (a), Section 246, or subdivision (c) or (d) of Section 26100, personally and intentionally discharges a firearm and proximately causes great bodily injury, as defined in Section 12022.7, or death, to a person other than an accomplice, shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for 25 years to life.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) This section applies to the following felonies: (1) Section 187 (murder). (2) Section 203 or 205 (mayhem). (3) Section 207, 209, or 209.5 (kidnapping). (4) Section 211 (robbery). (5) Section 215 (carjacking). (6) Section 220 (assault with intent to commit a specified felony). (7) Subdivision (d) of Section 245 (assault with a firearm on a peace officer or firefighter). (8) Section 261 or former Section 262 (rape). (9) Section 264.1 (rape or sexual penetration in concert). (10) Section 286 (sodomy). (11) Section 287 or former Section 288a (oral copulation). (12) Section 288 or 288.5 (lewd act on a child). (13) Section 289 (sexual penetration). (14) Section 4500 (assault by a life prisoner). (15) Section 4501 (assault by a prisoner). (16) Section 4503 (holding a hostage by a prisoner). (17) Any felony punishable by death or imprisonment in the state prison for life. (18) Any attempt to commit a crime listed in this subdivision other than an assault. (b) Notwithstanding any other law, a person who, in the commission of a felony specified in subdivision (a), personally uses a firearm, shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for 10 years. The firearm need not be operable or loaded for this enhancement to apply. (c) Notwithstanding any other law, a person who, in the commission of a felony specified in subdivision (a), personally and intentionally discharges a firearm, shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for 20 years. (d) Notwithstanding any other law, a person who, in the commission of a felony specified in subdivision (a), Section 246, or subdivision (c) or (d) of Section 26100, personally and intentionally discharges a firearm and proximately causes great bodily injury, as defined in Section 12022.7, or death, to a person other than an accomplice, shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for 25 years to life. (e) (1) The enhancements provided in this section shall apply to any person who is a principal in the commission of an offense if both of the following are pled and proved: (A) The person violated subdivision (b) of Section 186.22. (B) Any principal in the offense committed any act specified in subdivision (b), (c), or (d). (2) An enhancement for participation in a criminal street gang pursuant to Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 186.20) of Title 7 of Part 1 shall not be imposed on a person in addition to an enhancement imposed pursuant to this subdivision, unless the person personally used or personally discharged a firearm in the commission of the offense. (f) Only one additional term of imprisonment under this section shall be imposed per person for each crime. If more than one enhancement per person is found true under this section, the court shall impose upon that person the enhancement that provides the longest term of imprisonment. An enhancement involving a firearm specified in Section 12021.5, 12022, 12022.3, 12022.4, 12022.5, or 12022.55 shall not be imposed on a person in addition to an enhancement imposed pursuant to this section. An enhancement for great bodily injury as defined in Section 12022.7, 12022.8, or 12022.9 shall not be imposed on a person in addition to an enhancement imposed pursuant to subdivision (d). (g) Notwithstanding any other law, probation shall not be granted to, nor shall the execution or imposition of sentence be suspended for, a person found to come within the provisions of this section. (h) The court may, in the interest of justice pursuant to Section 1385 and at the time of sentencing, strike or dismiss an enhancement otherwise required to be imposed by this section. The authority provided by this subdivision applies to any resentencing that may occur pursuant to any other law. (i) The total amount of credits awarded pursuant to Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 2930) of Chapter 7 of Title 1 of Part 3 or pursuant to Section 4019 or any other law shall not exceed 15 percent of the total term of imprisonment imposed on a defendant upon whom a sentence is imposed pursuant to this section. (j) For the penalties in this section to apply, the existence of any fact required under subdivision (b), (c), or (d) shall be alleged in the accusatory pleading and either admitted by the defendant in open court or found to be true by the trier of fact. When an enhancement specified in this section has been admitted or found to be true, the court shall impose punishment for that enhancement pursuant to this section rather than imposing punishment authorized under any other law, unless another enhancement provides for a greater penalty or a longer term of imprisonment. (k) When a person is found to have used or discharged a firearm in the commission of an offense that includes an allegation pursuant to this section and the firearm is owned by that person, a coparticipant, or a coconspirator, the court shall order that the firearm be deemed a nuisance and disposed of in the manner provided in Sections 18000 and 18005. (l) The enhancements specified in this section shall not apply to the lawful use or discharge of a firearm by a public officer, as provided in Section 196, or by any person in lawful self-defense, lawful defense of another, or lawful defense of property, as provided in Sections 197, 198, and 198.5.
- Strafschärfung — der Wert ist ein Zusatzterm, keine Grundstrafe
- lebenslange-haft
- todesstrafe
: Bewährung
Strafschärfungen · Teil 4
nur im Gesetzestext
Weitergabe örtlicher Vorstrafenauskünfte
Die Vorschrift regelt, was zur örtlichen zusammenfassenden Vorstrafenauskunft gehört und welchen Stellen eine örtliche Strafverfolgungsbehörde sie zur Erfüllung ihrer Aufgaben übermitteln darf. Für Auskünfte zu Zwecken der Einstellung, Zertifizierung oder Lizenzierung gelten zusätzliche Schutzvorschriften. Verstösse gegen die Beschränkungen sind strafbar und lösen ausserdem einen Schadensersatzanspruch des betroffenen Beschäftigten oder Bewerbers aus.
Strafebis zu 6 Monate oder bis $1.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 13300 — Weitergabe örtlicher VorstrafenauskünfteWortlautzu
Die Vorschrift regelt, was zur örtlichen zusammenfassenden Vorstrafenauskunft gehört und welchen Stellen eine örtliche Strafverfolgungsbehörde sie zur Erfüllung ihrer Aufgaben übermitteln darf. Für Auskünfte zu Zwecken der Einstellung, Zertifizierung oder Lizenzierung gelten zusätzliche Schutzvorschriften. Verstösse gegen die Beschränkungen sind strafbar und lösen ausserdem einen Schadensersatzanspruch des betroffenen Beschäftigten oder Bewerbers aus.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Ein Verstoss gegen die Vorschriften des betreffenden Absatzes ist ein Vergehen und gibt dem dadurch geschädigten Beschäftigten oder Bewerber einen Anspruch gegen das Versorgungsunternehmen auf Ersatz des unmittelbar verursachten Schadens.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
A violation of any of the provisions of this paragraph is a misdemeanor, and shall give the employee or applicant who is injured by the violation a cause of action against the public utility to recover damages proximately caused by the violation.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) As used in this section: (1) “Local summary criminal history information” means the master record of information compiled by any local criminal justice agency pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 13100) of Title 3 of Part 4 pertaining to the identification and criminal history of any person, such as name, date of birth, physical description, dates of arrests, arresting agencies and booking numbers, charges, dispositions, and similar data about the person. (2) “Local summary criminal history information” does not refer to records and data compiled by criminal justice agencies other than that local agency, nor does it refer to records of complaints to or investigations conducted by, or records of intelligence information or security procedures of, the local agency. (3) “Local agency” means a local criminal justice agency. (b) A local agency shall furnish local summary criminal history information to any of the following, when needed in the course of their duties, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any entity, in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply: (1) The courts of the state. (2) Peace officers of the state, as defined in Section 830.1, subdivisions (a) and (d) of Section 830.2, subdivisions (a), (b), and (j) of Section 830.3, and subdivisions (a), (b), and (c) of Section 830.5. (3) District attorneys of the state. (4) Prosecuting city attorneys of any city within the state. (5) City attorneys pursuing civil gang injunctions pursuant to Section 186.22a, drug abatement actions pursuant to Section 3479 or 3480 of the Civil Code or Section 11571 of the Health and Safety Code, or a city attorney or county counsel pursuing gun violence restraining orders pursuant to Division 3.2 (commencing with Section 18100) of Title 2 of Part 6. (6) Probation officers of the state. (7) Parole officers of the state. (8) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in proceedings upon a petition for a certificate of rehabilitation and pardon pursuant to Section 4852.08. (9) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in a criminal case, or a parole, mandatory supervision, or postrelease community supervision revocation or revocation extension hearing, and when authorized access by statutory or decisional law. (10) Any agency, officer, or official of the state when the local summary criminal history information is required to implement a statute, regulation, or ordinance that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the local summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon the specified criminal conduct. (11) Any city, county, city and county, or district, or any officer or official thereof, when access is needed in order to assist the agency, officer, or official in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, and when the access is specifically authorized by the city council, board of supervisors, or governing board of the city, county, or district when the local summary criminal history information is required to implement a statute, regulation, or ordinance that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the local summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon the specified criminal conduct. (12) The subject of the local summary criminal history information. (13) Any person or entity when access is expressly authorized by statute when the local summary criminal history information is required to implement a statute, regulation, or ordinance that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the local summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon the specified criminal conduct. (14) Any managing or supervising correctional officer of a county jail or other county correctional facility. (15) Local child support agencies established by Section 17304 of the Family Code. When a local child support agency closes a support enforcement case containing summary criminal history information, the agency shall delete or purge from the file and destroy any documents or information concerning or arising from offenses for or of which the parent has been arrested, charged, or convicted, other than for offenses related to the parents having failed to provide support for the minor children, consistent with Section 17531 of the Family Code. (16) County child welfare agency personnel who have been delegated the authority of county probation officers to access state summary criminal information pursuant to Section 272 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (17) A humane officer appointed pursuant to Section 14502 of the Corporations Code, for the purposes of performing the officer’s duties. A local agency may charge a reasonable fee sufficient to cover the costs of providing information pursuant to this paragraph. (c) The local agency may furnish local summary criminal history information, upon a showing of a compelling need, to any of the following, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any entity, in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply: (1) Any public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, that operates a nuclear energy facility when access is needed to assist in employing persons to work at the facility, provided that, if the local agency supplies the information, it shall furnish a copy of this information to the person to whom the information relates. (2) To a peace officer of the state other than those included in subdivision (b). (3) An animal control officer, authorized to exercise powers specified in Section 830.9, for the purposes of performing the officer’s official duties. A local agency may charge a reasonable fee sufficient to cover the costs of providing information pursuant to this paragraph. (4) To a peace officer of another country. (5) To public officers, other than peace officers, of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States, provided that access to records similar to local summary criminal history information is expressly authorized by a statute of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States when this information is needed for the performance of their official duties. (6) To any person when disclosure is requested by a probation, parole, or peace officer with the consent of the subject of the local summary criminal history information and for purposes of furthering the rehabilitation of the subject. (7) The courts of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States. (8) Peace officers of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States. (9) To any individual who is the subject of the record requested when needed in conjunction with an application to enter the United States or any foreign nation. (10) Any public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, when access is needed to assist in employing persons who will be seeking entrance to private residences in the course of their employment. The information provided shall be limited to the record of convictions and any arrest for which the person is released on bail or on the person’s own recognizance pending trial. If the local agency supplies the information pursuant to this paragraph, it shall furnish a copy of the information to the person to whom the information relates. Any information obtained from the local summary criminal history is confidential and the receiving public utility shall not disclose its contents, other than for the purpose for which it was acquired. The local summary criminal history information in the possession of the public utility and all copies made from it shall be destroyed 30 days after employment is denied or granted, including any appeal periods, except for those cases where an employee or applicant is out on bail or on the person’s own recognizance pending trial, in which case the state summary criminal history information and all copies shall be destroyed 30 days after the case is resolved, including any appeal periods. A violation of any of the provisions of this paragraph is a misdemeanor, and shall give the employee or applicant who is injured by the violation a cause of action against the public utility to recover damages proximately caused by the violation. Nothing in this section shall be construed as imposing any duty upon public utilities to request local summary criminal history information on any current or prospective employee. Seeking entrance to private residences in the course of employment shall be deemed a “compelling need” as required to be shown in this subdivision. (11) Any city, county, city and county, or district, or any officer or official thereof, if a written request is made to a local law enforcement agency and the information is needed to assist in the screening of a prospective concessionaire, and any affiliate or associate thereof, as these terms are defined in subdivision (k) of Section 432.7 of the Labor Code, for the purposes of consenting to, or approving of, the prospective concessionaire’s application for, or acquisition of, any beneficial interest in a concession, lease, or other property interest. Any local government’s request for local summary criminal history information for purposes of screening a prospective concessionaire and their affiliates or associates before approving or denying an application for, or acquisition of, any beneficial interest in a concession, lease, or other property interest is deemed a “compelling need” as required by this subdivision. However, only local summary criminal history information pertaining to criminal convictions may be obtained pursuant to this paragraph. Any information obtained from the local summary criminal history is confidential and the receiving local government shall not disclose its contents, other than for the purpose for which it was acquired. The local summary criminal history information in the possession of the local government and all copies made from it shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after the local government’s final decision to grant or deny consent to, or approval of, the prospective concessionaire’s application for, or acquisition of, a beneficial interest in a concession, lease, or other property interest. Nothing in this section shall be construed as imposing any duty upon a local government, or any officer or official thereof, to request local summary criminal history information on any current or prospective concessionaire or their affiliates or associates. (12) A public agency described in subdivision (b) of Section 15975 of the Government Code, for the purpose of oversight and enforcement policies with respect to its contracted providers. (d) Whenever an authorized request for local summary criminal history information pertains to a person whose fingerprints are on file with the local agency and the local agency has no criminal history of that person, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the fingerprint card accompanying the request for information, if any, may be stamped “no criminal record” and returned to the person or entity making the request. (e) A local agency taking fingerprints of a person who is an applicant for licensing, employment, or certification may charge a fee to cover the cost of taking the fingerprints and processing the required documents. (f) Whenever local summary criminal history information furnished pursuant to this section is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the local agency shall charge the person or entity making the request a fee that it determines to be sufficient to reimburse the local agency for the cost of furnishing the information, provided that no fee shall be charged to any public law enforcement agency for local summary criminal history information furnished to assist it in employing, licensing, or certifying a person who is applying for employment with the agency as a peace officer or criminal investigator. Any state agency required to pay a fee to the local agency for information received under this section may charge the applicant a fee sufficient to reimburse the agency for the expense. (g) Whenever there is a conflict, the processing of criminal fingerprints shall take priority over the processing of applicant fingerprints. (h) It is not a violation of this article to disseminate statistical or research information obtained from a record, provided that the identity of the subject of the record is not disclosed. (i) It is not a violation of this article to include information obtained from a record in (1) a transcript or record of a judicial or administrative proceeding or (2) any other public record when the inclusion of the information in the public record is authorized by a court, statute, or decisional law. (j) Notwithstanding any other law, a public prosecutor may, in response to a written request made pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 7922.500) and Article 2 (commencing with Section 7922.525) of Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Division 10 of Title 1 of the Government Code, provide information from a local summary criminal history, if release of the information would enhance public safety, the interest of justice, or the public’s understanding of the justice system and the person making the request declares that the request is made for a scholarly or journalistic purpose. If a person in a declaration required by this subdivision willfully states as true any material fact that person knows to be false, the person shall be subject to a civil penalty not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The requestor shall be informed in writing of this penalty. An action to impose a civil penalty under this subdivision may be brought by any public prosecutor and shall be enforced as a civil judgment. (k) Notwithstanding any other law, the Department of Justice or any state or local law enforcement agency may require the submission of fingerprints for the purpose of conducting summary criminal history information record checks that are authorized by law. (l) Any local criminal justice agency may release, within five years of the arrest, information concerning an arrest or detention of a peace officer or applicant for a position as a peace officer, as defined in Section 830, that did not result in conviction, and for which the person did not complete a postarrest diversion program or a deferred entry of judgment program, to a governmental agency employer of that peace officer or applicant. (m) Any local criminal justice agency may release information concerning an arrest of a peace officer or applicant for a position as a peace officer, as defined in Section 830, that did not result in conviction but for which the person completed a postarrest diversion program or a deferred entry of judgment program, or information concerning a referral to and participation in any postarrest diversion program or a deferred entry of judgment program to a governmental agency employer of that peace officer or applicant. (n) Notwithstanding subdivision (l) or (m), a local criminal justice agency shall not release information under the following circumstances: (1) Information concerning an arrest for which diversion or a deferred entry of judgment program has been ordered without attempting to determine whether diversion or a deferred entry of judgment program has been successfully completed. (2) Information concerning an arrest or detention followed by a dismissal or release without attempting to determine whether the individual was exonerated. (3) Information concerning an arrest without a disposition without attempting to determine whether diversion has been successfully completed or the individual was exonerated. (o) A public prosecutor may provide a public defender’s office, an alternate public defender’s office, or a licensed attorney of record in a criminal case with a list containing only the names of the peace officer and defendant and the corresponding case number to facilitate and expedite notifying counsel representing criminal defendants whose cases may involve testimony by that peace officer of exculpatory or impeachment evidence involving that peace officer. Any disclosure made pursuant to this subdivision shall only be made upon agreement by the public defender’s office, alternate public defender’s office, or the licensed attorney of record in a criminal case. Any disclosure pursuant to this subdivision shall not constitute disclosure under any other law, nor shall any privilege or confidentiality be deemed waived by that disclosure. This subdivision shall not be construed to otherwise limit any legal mandate to disclose evidence or information, including, but not limited to, the disclosures required under Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 1054) of Title 6 of Part 2.
Kein eigenes Strafmaß im Text. Dann gilt Cal. Penal Code § 19: bis 6 Monate Haft oder bis $1.000 — diese Zahlen stehen dort, nicht hier.
Kriminalstatistik · Teil 4
nur im Gesetzestext
Eigenbau von Schusswaffen und Pflicht zur Seriennummer
Herstellen oder Zusammenbauen einer Schusswaffe heisst, sie zu fertigen oder zu bauen, auch im auftragenden oder abtragenden Verfahren, oder ihre Bauteile zu einer Waffe zusammenzusetzen. Wer eine Waffe ohne gültige Seriennummer baut, muss vorher beim Justizministerium eine eindeutige Nummer beantragen und sie binnen zehn Tagen dauerhaft anbringen. Wer kein bundeslizenzierter Hersteller ist, darf eine selbst gebaute Waffe nicht verkaufen oder das Eigentum daran übertragen. Verboten ist ausserdem, den Bau einer Waffe durch eine vom Waffenbesitz ausgeschlossene Person zu ermöglichen oder wissentlich eine Waffe ohne gültige Seriennummer zu bauen. Die Vorschrift richtet sich gegen sogenannte Geisterwaffen.
Strafe6 Monate bis 1 Jahr Gefängnis· dazu $1.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 29180 — Eigenbau von Schusswaffen und Pflicht zur SeriennummerWortlautzu
Herstellen oder Zusammenbauen einer Schusswaffe heisst, sie zu fertigen oder zu bauen, auch im auftragenden oder abtragenden Verfahren, oder ihre Bauteile zu einer Waffe zusammenzusetzen. Wer eine Waffe ohne gültige Seriennummer baut, muss vorher beim Justizministerium eine eindeutige Nummer beantragen und sie binnen zehn Tagen dauerhaft anbringen. Wer kein bundeslizenzierter Hersteller ist, darf eine selbst gebaute Waffe nicht verkaufen oder das Eigentum daran übertragen. Verboten ist ausserdem, den Bau einer Waffe durch eine vom Waffenbesitz ausgeschlossene Person zu ermöglichen oder wissentlich eine Waffe ohne gültige Seriennummer zu bauen. Die Vorschrift richtet sich gegen sogenannte Geisterwaffen.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Bei einer Kurzwaffe: Freiheitsstrafe bis zu einem Jahr im Bezirksgefängnis oder Geldstrafe bis zu 1.000 Dollar oder beides. Bei allen anderen Schusswaffen: Freiheitsstrafe bis zu sechs Monaten im Bezirksgefängnis oder Geldstrafe bis zu 1.000 Dollar oder beides. Jede betroffene Waffe bildet eine eigene Tat. Eine Verfolgung nach strengeren Vorschriften bleibt möglich.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(g) If the firearm is a handgun, a violation of this section is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, or by a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. For all other firearms, a violation of this section is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed six months, or by a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. Each firearm found to be in violation of this section constitutes a distinct and separate offense. This section does not preclude prosecution under any other law providing for a greater penalty.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) For purposes of this chapter, “manufacturing” or “assembling” a firearm means to fabricate or construct a firearm, including through additive, subtractive, or other processes, or to fit together the component parts of a firearm to construct a firearm. (b) Before manufacturing or assembling a firearm, a person manufacturing or assembling the firearm shall, for any firearm that does not have a valid state or federal serial number or mark of identification imprinted on the frame or receiver, do all of the following: (1) (A) Apply to the Department of Justice for a unique serial number or other mark of identification pursuant to Section 29182. (B) Each application shall contain a description of the firearm that the applicant intends to assemble, the applicant’s full name, address, date of birth, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate. (2) (A) Within 10 days of manufacturing or assembling a firearm in accordance with paragraph (1), the unique serial number or other mark of identification provided by the department shall be engraved or permanently affixed to the firearm in a manner that meets or exceeds the requirements imposed on licensed importers and licensed manufacturers of firearms pursuant to subsection (i) of Section 923 of Title 18 of the United States Code and regulations issued pursuant thereto. (B) If the firearm is manufactured or assembled from polymer plastic, 3.7 ounces of material type 17-4 PH stainless steel shall be embedded within the plastic upon fabrication or construction with the unique serial number engraved or otherwise permanently affixed in a manner that meets or exceeds the requirements imposed on licensed importers and licensed manufacturers of firearms pursuant to subsection (i) of Section 923 of Title 18 of the United States Code and regulations issued pursuant thereto. (3) After the serial number provided by the department is engraved or otherwise permanently affixed to the firearm, the person shall notify the department of that fact in a manner and within a time period specified by the department, and with sufficient information to identify the owner of the firearm, the unique serial number or mark of identification provided by the department, and the firearm in a manner prescribed by the department. (c) Any person who owns a firearm or firearm precursor part that does not bear a valid state or federal serial number or mark of identification shall be deemed to be in compliance with subdivision (b) of Section 23920 if they comply with all of the following: (1) (A) By no later than January 1, 2024, or if a new resident of the state, within 60 days after arriving in the state with a firearm that does not have a valid state or federal serial number or mark of identification, apply to the Department of Justice for a unique serial number or other mark of identification pursuant to Section 29182. (B) An application to the department for a serial number or mark of identification for a firearm precursor part shall include, in a manner prescribed by the department, information identifying the applicant and a description of the firearm that the applicant intends to manufacture or assemble with the firearm precursor part, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate. (2) Within 10 days of receiving a unique serial number or other mark of identification from the department, engrave or permanently affix that serial number or mark of identification to the firearm in accordance with regulations prescribed by the department pursuant to Section 29182 and in a manner that meets or exceeds the requirements imposed on licensed importers and licensed manufacturers of firearms pursuant to subsection (i) of Section 923 of Title 18 of the United States Code and regulations issued pursuant thereto. If the firearm is manufactured or assembled from polymer plastic, 3.7 ounces of material type 17-4 PH stainless steel shall be embedded within the plastic upon fabrication or construction. (3) After the serial number provided by the department is engraved or otherwise permanently affixed to the firearm, notify the department of that fact in a manner and within a time period specified by the department and with sufficient information to identify the owner of the firearm, the unique serial number or mark of identification provided by the department, and the firearm in a manner prescribed by the department. (d) (1) Except by operation of law, a person, corporation, or firm that is not a federally licensed firearms manufacturer shall not sell or transfer ownership of a firearm, as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 16520, if any of the following are true: (A) That person, corporation, or firm manufactured or assembled the firearm. (B) That person, corporation, or firm knowingly caused the firearm to be manufactured or assembled by a person, corporation, or firm that is not a federally licensed firearms manufacturer. (C) That person, corporation, or firm is aware that the firearm was manufactured or assembled by a person, corporation, or firm that is not a federally licensed firearms manufacturer. (2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to the transfer, surrender, or sale of a firearm to a law enforcement agency. (3) Any firearms confiscated by law enforcement that do not bear an engraved serial number or other mark of identification pursuant to subdivision (b) or (c), or a firearm surrendered, transferred, or sold to a law enforcement agency pursuant to paragraph (2) shall be destroyed as provided in Section 18005. (4) Sections 26500 and 27545, and subdivision (a) of Section 31615, do not apply to the transfer, sale, or surrender of firearms to a law enforcement agency pursuant to paragraph (2). (e) A person, corporation, or firm shall not knowingly allow, facilitate, aid, or abet the manufacture or assembling of a firearm by a person who is within any of the classes identified by Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) or Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of this code, or Section 8100 or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (f) A person, corporation, or firm shall not knowingly manufacture or assemble, or knowingly cause, allow, facilitate, aid, or abet the manufacture or assembling of, a firearm that is not imprinted with a valid state or federal serial number or mark of identification. (g) If the firearm is a handgun, a violation of this section is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, or by a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. For all other firearms, a violation of this section is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed six months, or by a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. Each firearm found to be in violation of this section constitutes a distinct and separate offense. This section does not preclude prosecution under any other law providing for a greater penalty.
Waffenrecht · Teil 6 · Geldstrafe $1.000
nur im Gesetzestext
Waffenbesitz nach Verurteilung wegen eines Verbrechens
Strafbar macht sich, wer wegen eines Verbrechens nach US-Bundesrecht, kalifornischem Recht oder dem Recht eines anderen Staates verurteilt wurde oder wegen einer der besonders aufgezählten Taten und der dennoch eine Schusswaffe besitzt, kauft, entgegennimmt oder unter seiner Obhut oder Kontrolle hat. Dasselbe gilt für Betäubungsmittelabhängige, für Personen mit zwei oder mehr Verurteilungen wegen bestimmter Waffendelikte und für Personen, die wissen, dass gegen sie ein offener Haftbefehl wegen einer solchen Tat besteht. Erfasst ist auch, wer als Jugendlicher im Erwachsenenstrafverfahren verurteilt wurde.
Strafekeine Zahl im Gesetz — nur der Wortlaut, unter „Mehr dazu“
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 29800 — Waffenbesitz nach Verurteilung wegen eines VerbrechensWortlautzu
Strafbar macht sich, wer wegen eines Verbrechens nach US-Bundesrecht, kalifornischem Recht oder dem Recht eines anderen Staates verurteilt wurde oder wegen einer der besonders aufgezählten Taten und der dennoch eine Schusswaffe besitzt, kauft, entgegennimmt oder unter seiner Obhut oder Kontrolle hat. Dasselbe gilt für Betäubungsmittelabhängige, für Personen mit zwei oder mehr Verurteilungen wegen bestimmter Waffendelikte und für Personen, die wissen, dass gegen sie ein offener Haftbefehl wegen einer solchen Tat besteht. Erfasst ist auch, wer als Jugendlicher im Erwachsenenstrafverfahren verurteilt wurde.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Verbrechen.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
guilty of a felony
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) Any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the United States, the State of California, or any other state, government, or country, or of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a), (b), or (d) of Section 23515, or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony. (2) Any person who has two or more convictions for violating paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 417 and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony. (3) Any person who has an outstanding warrant for any offense listed in this subdivision and who has knowledge of the outstanding warrant, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony. (b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who has been convicted of a felony or of an offense enumerated in Section 23515, when that conviction results from certification by the juvenile court for prosecution as an adult in an adult court under Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who owns or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony. (c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a conviction or warrant for a felony under the laws of the United States unless either of the following criteria, as applicable, is satisfied: (1) Conviction of an offense under California law that includes comparable elements of the federal offense can only result in imposition of felony punishment. (2) The defendant was sentenced to a federal correctional facility for more than 30 days, or received a fine of more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or received both punishments. (d) Subdivision (a) does not apply to a conviction for a nonviolent felony under the laws of any other state if both of the following criteria are satisfied: (1) The conviction has been vacated, set aside, expunged, or otherwise dismissed under the laws of the state where the defendant was convicted. (2) If the conviction resulted in a firearms prohibition under the laws of the state where the defendant was convicted, the vacatur, set aside, expungement, or dismissal of the conviction restored firearms rights under the laws of that state. (e) Subdivision (a) does not apply to a conviction for a nonviolent felony under the laws of any other state if both of the following criteria are satisfied: (1) The person received a full and unconditional pardon by the Governor of the other state for the felony conviction and the pardon restores civil rights that include firearms rights. (2) The person was never convicted of a felony involving the use of a dangerous weapon, as that phrase is used in Sections 4852.17 and 4854. (f) (1) As used in this section, “nonviolent felony” means an offense under the laws of any other state that does not include comparable elements constituting an offense listed in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7, subdivision (a) of Section 1192.8, Section 23515, or Section 29905. (2) An attempt, conspiracy, or solicitation to commit an offense under the laws of any other state that includes comparable elements constituting an offense listed in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7, subdivision (a) of Section 1192.8, Section 23515, or Section 29905 is not a “nonviolent felony,” as used in this section. (3) Aiding or abetting an offense under the laws of any other state that includes comparable elements constituting an offense listed in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7, subdivision (a) of Section 1192.8, Section 23515, or Section 29905 is not a “nonviolent felony,” as used in this section.
Waffenrecht · Teil 6
nur im Gesetzestext
Zehnjähriges Waffenverbot nach Verurteilung wegen bestimmter Vergehen
Wer wegen eines der zahlreichen im Gesetz aufgezählten Vergehen verurteilt wurde, darf zehn Jahre lang keine Schusswaffe besitzen, kaufen, entgegennehmen oder unter seiner Obhut oder Kontrolle haben. Die Liste umfasst unter anderem Körperverletzung, Bedrohung, häusliche Gewalt, Verstoss gegen Schutzanordnungen, Nachstellung, Waffendelikte und Zeugenbeeinflussung. Erfasst ist auch, wer weiss, dass gegen ihn wegen einer solchen Tat ein offener Haftbefehl besteht.
Strafenormalerweise 2 Jahre Gefängnis· dazu bis $1.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Der Strafrahmen im Gesetz
16 Monate·2 Jahre·3 JahreWarum drei Zahlen??weniger
Das Gericht nimmt eine dieser drei Zahlen. Dazwischen gibt es nichts — „16 Monate · 2 Jahre · 3 Jahre“ heisst nicht „von … bis“.
- Die mittlere ist der Normalfall. Sie gilt, solange nichts dagegenspricht.
- Die obere nur, wenn es besonders schlimm war — und das muss bewiesen sein. „Wahrscheinlich“ reicht nicht.
- Die untere, wenn etwas dafür spricht: erlittenes Trauma, Jugend zur Tatzeit, Gewalt in der Partnerschaft.
Im Gesetz: „16 months, or two or three years“
Cal. Penal Code § 29805 — Zehnjähriges Waffenverbot nach Verurteilung wegen bestimmter VergehenWortlautzu
Wer wegen eines der zahlreichen im Gesetz aufgezählten Vergehen verurteilt wurde, darf zehn Jahre lang keine Schusswaffe besitzen, kaufen, entgegennehmen oder unter seiner Obhut oder Kontrolle haben. Die Liste umfasst unter anderem Körperverletzung, Bedrohung, häusliche Gewalt, Verstoss gegen Schutzanordnungen, Nachstellung, Waffendelikte und Zeugenbeeinflussung. Erfasst ist auch, wer weiss, dass gegen ihn wegen einer solchen Tat ein offener Haftbefehl besteht.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Freiheitsstrafe bis zu einem Jahr im Bezirksgefängnis oder Freiheitsstrafe im Staatsgefängnis, Geldstrafe bis zu 1.000 Dollar oder beides.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(a) (1) Except as provided in Section 29855, subdivision (a) of Section 29800, or subdivision (b), any person who has been convicted of a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 422.6, 626.9, 646.9, 830.95, 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 487 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.
(c) Any person who is convicted on or after January 1, 2020, of a misdemeanor violation of Section 25100, 25135, or 25200, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(g) Any person who is convicted on or after January 1, 2025, of a misdemeanor violation of subdivision (a) of Section 597, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) (1) Except as provided in Section 29855, subdivision (a) of Section 29800, or subdivision (b), any person who has been convicted of a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 422.6, 626.9, 646.9, 830.95, 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 487 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. (2) Any person who has an outstanding warrant for any misdemeanor offense described in this subdivision, and who has knowledge of the outstanding warrant, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. (b) Any person who is convicted, on or after January 1, 2019, of a misdemeanor violation of Section 273.5, and who subsequently owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. (c) Any person who is convicted on or after January 1, 2020, of a misdemeanor violation of Section 25100, 25135, or 25200, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (d) Any person who is convicted on or after January 1, 2023, of a misdemeanor violation of Section 273a, subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 368, or subdivision (e) or (f) of Section 29180, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (e) Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who is convicted on or after January 1, 2024, of a misdemeanor violation of this section, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (f) Any person who is convicted on or after January 1, 2024, of a misdemeanor violation of paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of subdivision (c) of Section 25400, paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of subdivision (c) of Section 25850, subdivision (a) of Section 26350, or subdivision (a) of Section 26400, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (g) Any person who is convicted on or after January 1, 2025, of a misdemeanor violation of subdivision (a) of Section 597, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (h) Any person, who is convicted on or after January 1, 2026, of a misdemeanor violation of Section 24610, 27530, 29185, 29186, 30605, 30610, 32900, 33215, or 33600, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, owns, purchases, receives, or has in their possession or under their custody or control any firearm, is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (i) The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
Waffenrecht · Teil 6 · Geldstrafe bis $1.000
Verweist auf: Cal. Penal Code § 27590
nur im Gesetzestext
Umrüstsätze für Grosskapazitätsmagazine
Seit dem 1. Januar 2014 ist strafbar, wer wissentlich einen Umrüstsatz für ein Grosskapazitätsmagazin herstellt oder herstellen lässt, nach Kalifornien einführt, zum Verkauf vorrätig hält, zum Verkauf anbietet oder ausstellt, verschenkt, verleiht, kauft oder entgegennimmt. Ein solcher Umrüstsatz besteht aus den Teilen eines voll funktionsfähigen Grosskapazitätsmagazins, etwa Gehäuse, Feder, Zubringer und Bodenplatte, und ermöglicht den Umbau eines Magazins zu einem Grosskapazitätsmagazin. Für das fertig zusammengebaute Magazin gilt § 32310.
Strafe6 Monate Gefängnis· dazu bis $1.000
Cal. Penal Code § Mehr dazuschliessen
Cal. Penal Code § 32311 — Umrüstsätze für GrosskapazitätsmagazineWortlautzu
Seit dem 1. Januar 2014 ist strafbar, wer wissentlich einen Umrüstsatz für ein Grosskapazitätsmagazin herstellt oder herstellen lässt, nach Kalifornien einführt, zum Verkauf vorrätig hält, zum Verkauf anbietet oder ausstellt, verschenkt, verleiht, kauft oder entgegennimmt. Ein solcher Umrüstsatz besteht aus den Teilen eines voll funktionsfähigen Grosskapazitätsmagazins, etwa Gehäuse, Feder, Zubringer und Bodenplatte, und ermöglicht den Umbau eines Magazins zu einem Grosskapazitätsmagazin. Für das fertig zusammengebaute Magazin gilt § 32310.
Strafe auf Deutsch —
Geldstrafe bis zu 1.000 Dollar oder Freiheitsstrafe bis zu sechs Monaten im Bezirksgefängnis oder beides.
Wortlaut im Gesetz (englisch)
(a) Except as provided in Article 2 (commencing with Section 32400) of this chapter and in Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 17700) of Division 2 of Title 2, commencing January 1, 2014, any person in this state who knowingly manufactures or causes to be manufactured, imports into the state, keeps for sale, or offers or exposes for sale, or who gives, lends, buys, or receives any large capacity magazine conversion kit is punishable by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000) or imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed six months, or by both that fine and imprisonment. This section does not apply to a fully assembled large-capacity magazine, which is governed by Section 32310.
Ganzer Gesetzestext (englisch)
(a) Except as provided in Article 2 (commencing with Section 32400) of this chapter and in Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 17700) of Division 2 of Title 2, commencing January 1, 2014, any person in this state who knowingly manufactures or causes to be manufactured, imports into the state, keeps for sale, or offers or exposes for sale, or who gives, lends, buys, or receives any large capacity magazine conversion kit is punishable by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000) or imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed six months, or by both that fine and imprisonment. This section does not apply to a fully assembled large-capacity magazine, which is governed by Section 32310. (b) For purposes of this section, a “large capacity magazine conversion kit” is a device or combination of parts of a fully functioning large-capacity magazine, including, but not limited to, the body, spring, follower, and floor plate or end plate, capable of converting an ammunition feeding device into a large-capacity magazine.
Waffenrecht · Teil 6 · Geldstrafe bis $1.000
2Dein Fall
noch leer
Noch nichts ausgewählt. Suchen Sie oben nach der Tat und tippen Sie „Hinzufügen“ — jede Tat einzeln, so oft, wie sie vorkam.
3Diese Paragraphen gelten
Sobald die erste Tat oben im Fall liegt, stehen hier die Paragraphen, die dafür gelten — jeder mit Fundstelle zum Kopieren.
Orientierung, keine verbindliche Auskunft — das letzte Wort hat das Gericht. Katalog: leginfo.legislature.ca.gov — California Penal Code, Stand 2026-08-30, 1419 Paragraphen. Verbindlich ist der englische Wortlaut; die deutsche Fassung ist eine Arbeitsübersetzung und steht an jedem Paragraphen zum Aufklappen daneben — für 5 Paragraphen liegt sie noch nicht vor.